Question 2. 
 
A 44-year-old woman presented with post-coital bleeding. Investigation revealed a 2-cm 
grade 1, stage IB1 squamous cell carcinoma of the cervix. There was no evidence of 
lymphovascular space invasion. She had completed her family. 
 
What is the most appropriate treatment? 
 
A brachytherapy 
B chemo-radiotherapy 
C  excision cone biopsy only 
D radical 

hysterectomy 

E vaginal 

trachelectomy