Description
In this collection, there will be a bunch of molecular biology questions.
This will help medical, pharmacy, chemistry and dental students to review
Study Set Content:
1
BIO PLACEMENT TEST REVIEW QUESTIONS
Review 1: Answer Key on page 11
Select the correct answer.
1) Which of the following is FALSE about scientific theories?
A) They have been thoroughly tested.
B) They are developed by inductive reasoning.
C) They are used to support observations using deductive reasoning.
D) They can be either supported or modified by new observations.
E) They are firmly established and cannot be refuted.
2) Which of the following issues would be
LEAST
helped by application of the
scientific method?
A) Developing more effective high school curricula
B) Evaluating the relationship between violence in videogames and criminal
behavior in teens
C) Determining the most effective safety products for automobiles
D) Formulating public policy on euthanasia
E) Comparing the effectiveness of two potential antibiotics
3) In controlled experiments:
A) One variable is manipulated while others are held constant
B) All variables are dependent on each other
C) All variables are held constant
D) All variables are independent of each other
E) All critical variables are manipulated
4) Which of the following is/are characteristics of living organisms?
A) Organized structure
B) Growth and reproduction
C) Maintenance of homeostasis
D) A and B
E) A, B and C
5) What do we call the maintenance of internal conditions of an organism within a
certain boundary range?
A)
Evolution
B)
Homeostasis
C)
Adaptation
D)
Metabolism
E)
Photosynthesis
2
6) Which is the correct sequence of increasing organization?
A) Molecule, cell, organelle, organ
B) Organelle, tissue, cell, organ
C) Atom, molecule, tissue, cell
D) Organ, organism, tissue, cell
E) Cell, tissue, organ, organ system
7) Which kingdom possesses unicellular animal-like species and unicellular plant-like
species?
A) Fungi
B)
Animalia
C)
Protist
D)
Plant
E)
Bacteria
8) The Bacteria and Eukarya domains are distinguished by:
A) All members of Bacteria are single-celled and all members of Eukarya
are multicellular.
B) All Bacteria get nutrients via absorption and all Eukarya by
photosynthesis.
C) Only Eukarya have the ability to grow and reproduce.
D) In Bacteria there is an absence of membranous organelles, such as a
nucleus.
E) Only Eukarya have DNA
9) A basic difference between a prokaryotic cell and a eukaryotic cell is that the
prokaryotic cell:
A) Possesses membrane-bound organelles.
B) Lacks a nucleus.
C) Lacks DNA
D) is considerably larger.
E) is structurally more complex.
10) The atomic number of carbon is 6. Its nucleus
must
contain:
A) 6 neutrons and 6 protons
B) 3 protons and 3 neutrons
C) 6 neutrons and 0 electrons
D) 6 protons and 0 electrons
E) 6 protons and 6 electrons
11) Whic
A
B
C
D
E
12) A ch
A
B
C
D
E
13) Wha
A)
B
C
D
E
14) Whic
of te
A
B
C
D
E
ch of these
A) Carbon
B) Hydrogen
C) Phospho
D) Calcium
E) All of the
hemical com
A) A proton
B) A base
C) An acid
D) A hydrox
E) A hydrog
at happens
) The HCl m
B) The wate
C) The conc
D) The pH o
E) None of t
ch property
emperature
A) High spec
B) High hea
C) High hea
D) A and B
E) A, B, and
atoms wou
n
rus
above
mpound tha
ide ion
en ion
when hydr
molecules s
er had less f
centration o
of the water
the above
y of water m
e for living o
cific heat
t of vaporiz
t of fusion
d C
uld become
at releases
ochloric ac
separate int
free H+
of OH
-
incre
r increases
molecules e
organisms?
zation
e inert if it a
OH
-
into a s
id is added
to H+ and C
eases
enables wat
accepted th
solution is c
d to water?
Cl-
ter to functi
ree electron
called:
on as a mo
ns?
oderator
3
15) The
A
B
C
D
E
16) A co
A)
B
C
D
E
17) Wha
into
A
B
C
D
E
formation o
A) Gain or lo
B) Gain or lo
C) Sharing o
D) Sharing o
E) Gain or lo
ovalent bon
) Two non-p
B) A positive
C) One atom
D) Two atom
E) Two pola
at type of ch
their respe
A) Condens
B) Hydrolysi
C) Oxidation
D) Ionization
E) Dehydrat
of ions invo
oss of elect
oss of proto
of electrons
of protons
oss of neutr
d is formed
polar molec
ely charged
m gives up e
ms share el
r molecules
hemical rea
ective subu
ation
is
n
n
tion
olves the:
trons
ons
s
rons
d when:
cules assoc
d particle is
electrons to
ectrons
s are attrac
action resul
nits?
ciate with e
attracted to
o another a
cted to each
ts in the bre
ach other i
o a negativ
atom
h other
eakdown o
n a polar en
vely charged
f organic po
nvironment
d particle
olymers
4
t
5
18) As shown in this figure, the top triglyceride (a) has ____; the bottom
triglyceride has ____.
A) Double bonds and is saturated; no double bonds and is unsaturated
B) No double bonds and is saturated; double bonds and is unsaturated
C) No double bonds and is unsaturated; double bonds and is saturated
D) Double bonds and is unsaturated; double bonds and is unsaturated
E) Double bonds and is unsaturated; no double bonds and is saturated
19) Which of the following reactions requires the removal of water to form a
covalent bond?
A) Glycogen -> glucose subunits
B) Peptide -> amino acids
C) Cellulose -> glucose
D) Glucose and galactose -> lactose
E) Fat -> fatty acids and glycerol
20) Which of the following refers to the amino acid sequence of proteins?
A)
Primary
B)
Secondary
C)
Tertiary
D)
Quaternary
E) None of the above
21) Which is not a feature of a prokaryotic cell?
A) A plasma membrane
B) A nuclear membrane
C)
Ribosomes
D)
Enzymes
E)
DNA
22) After being formed by ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum, what is the
next organelle to which a protein might be transported?
A) Mitochondria
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
C)
Nucleus
D) Golgi apparatus
E)
Chloroplast
23) Which type of cell does NOT produce cell walls?
A) Animal cells
B) Plant cells
C)
Archaea
D)
Bacteria
E) Prokaryotic cells
6
24) In an experiment, you measure the concentration of a polar molecule inside and
outside the cell and find that the concentration of this molecule is gradually
increasing inside the cell. You also measure the concentration of ATP inside
the cell and find that it is dropping. Which of the following processes are you
likely to be observing?
A)
Osmosis
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Active Transport
D) Simple diffusion
E) Passive transport
25) The movement of
water
across a membrane from a solution of lower solute
concentration to a solution of higher solute concentration is best described as
A)
Osmosis
B) Facilitated diffusion
C) Active Transport
D) Simple diffusion
E)
Endocytosis
26) Mitochondria and chloroplasts share all of the following characteristics
EXCEPT that they:
A) Are capable of ATP synthesis.
B) Capture the energy of sunlight to meet metabolic demands.
C) Possess their own DNA
D) Are surrounded by a double membrane
E) Were originally independent organisms
27) Which of the following will be least likely to degrade a protein?
A) Temperature greater than 100 degrees centigrade
B) Strong acid
C) Strong base
D)
Water
E)
Poisons
28) Which of the following energy-generating processes is the only one that occurs
in almost all living organisms?
A) Glycolysis
B)
Combustion
C) Krebs Cycle
D)
Photosynthesis
E)
Chemiosmosis
7
29) At the end of glycolysis, the original carbons of the glucose molecule form:
A) Six molecules of carbon dioxide
B) Two molecules of NADH
C) Two molecules of pyruvate
D) Two molecules of citric acid
E) Two molecules of fructose
30) The oxygen we breathe in is used in
A)
Glycolysis
B) Krebs cycle
C) Electron Transport System
D) Preparatory Step
E)
Fermentation
31) If a DNA sample contains 13% adenine, what percentage of the sample contains
cytosine?
A) 13%
B) 0%
C)
37%
D)
26%
E)
74%
32) For the DNA sequence G-C-C-T-A-T in one polynucleotide chain, the sequence
found in the other polynucleotide chain must be:
A)
C-G-G-A-T-A.
B) G-C-C-A-T-A.
C) C-G-G-A-U-A.
D)
A-T-T-C-G-C.
E)
G-C-C-T-A-T.
33) Which of the following are expected to result in genetic variation among
offspring?
A) Mutations
B) Crossing over
C) Random assortment of parental chromosomes during meiosis
D) A and B
E) A, B, and C
34) For a mutation to affect the evolution of an animal species, it must occur in
A) Somatic cells
B) Prokaryotic cells
C)
Gametes
D) None of the above
E) All of the above
8
35) If a sperm cell has 6 chromosomes, it comes from an animal whose somatic
cells have ___ chromosomes.
A)
6
B)
10
C)
12
D)
18
E)
24
36) The haploid number of chromosomes for humans is
*A)
23
B)
24
C)
26
D)
46
E)
48
37) Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle?
A) G1, G2, S, M
B) G1, G2, M, S
C) M, S, G1, G2
D) G1, S, G2, M
E) G1, M, G2, S
38) Which of the following is TRUE regarding the genetic information in the cells
of your body?
A) Different kinds of body cells contain different genetic information.
B) Each type of body cell contains only the genetic information it needs to
be that type of cell.
C) The genetic information in almost all of your body cells is identical.
D) The genetic information in your body cells changes in a predictable
manner as you grow and develop.
E) The genetic information is stored in the sequence of amino acids in proteins
39) What is the importance of crossing over in meiosis?
A) It provides extra genetic material for the daughter cells
B) It produces proteins necessary for cell division
C) It causes the separation of homologous chromosomes
D) It ensures that the daughter cells have different genetic material
E) It initiates meiosis 11
40) At which stage of meiosis is each chromosome composed of a single chromatid?
A) Prophase 1
B) Prophase 11
C) Metaphase 1
D) Metaphase 11
E) Anaphase 11
9
41) Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the genetic information as it is
needed for the construction of a protein?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) Transfer RNA
C) Messenger RNA
D)
Primary
RNA
E) Secondary RNA
42) Which the following occurs in the nucleus in a eukaryotic cell?
A) Transcription only
B) Assembly of amino acids into protein only
C) Replication of genetic material only
D) Both transcription and replication of genetic material
E) Translation only
43) What are alleles?
A) Genes for different traits, such as hair color or eye color
B) Alternative forms of a gene for a single trait, such as blue eyes or brown
eyes
C) The location of genes on the chromosome
D) Recessive forms of the gene
E) Dominant forms of the gene
44) An individual who is
a carrier
for a sex-linked trait, such as hemophilia:
A) Is always male
B) Is homozygous for the condition
C) Shows the dominant phenotype
D) Cannot pass the gene to his or her daughters
E) Is never a female
45) An individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a
recessive phenotype and 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype.
What is the genotype of the parent with the dominant phenotype?
A) Aa
B)
AA
C)
aa
D)
AAAa
E)
Aaaa
46) Which of the following is NOT true according to Mendel’s law of segregation?
A) Each individual contains two factors for each trait
B) One factor must be dominant and one must be recessive
C) Factors separate from each other during the formation of gametes
D) Each gamete contains one copy of each factor
E) Fertilization restores the two copies of each factor
10
47) Which of the following can evolve?
A)
Individuals
B)
Populations
C)
Genes
D)
DNA
E) All of the above
48) Genetic variations in natural populations develop due to:
A) Random mutations of the DNA
B) Changes in the diet
C) Changes in the environment
D) Environmental catastrophes
E) Individual activities
49) An antibiotic is given repeatedly to treat a recurrent ear infection. It worked
initially but now is no longer effective. This likely indicates that the
Streptococcus
bacterium:
A) Is very sensitive to the antibiotic.
B) Is being treated with an antibiotic that has experienced a manufacturing
error, making it ineffective.
C) Experienced natural selection that has allowed the resistant
Streptococcus
bacteria to survive and multiply.
D) Are infectious only if they are sensitive to the antibiotic.
E) All of the above
50) Natural selection can act on a trait only if the trait is:
A) Heritable
B)
Behavioral
C)
Favorable
D)
New
E)
Morphological
11
KEY for Review 1
1. E
2. D
3. A
4. E
5. B
6. E
7. C
8. D
9. B
10. D
11. C
12. B
13. A
14. E
15. A
16. D
17. B
18. B
19. D
20. A
21. B
22. D
23. A
24. C
25. A
26. B
27. D
28. A
29. C
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. E
34. C
35. C
36. A
37. D
38. C
39. D
40. E
41. C
42. D
43. B
44. C
45. A
46. B
47. B
48. A
49. C
50. A
12
Review 2: Answer Key on page 21
Select the correct answer.
1) A primary source of scientific results is ___
A) The news media
B) Anecdotes from others
C) Articles in peer- reviewed journals
D) The internet
E) All of the above
2) A guess in a scientific process is called __; a unifying explanation for a range of
observations is termed___?
A)
Theory:
Hypothesis
B)
Theory:
Experiment
C) Hypothesis: Control
D) Hypothesis: Theory
E) Experiment: Theory
3) To test the effect of vitamin D on growth, two groups of rats were raised under
identical conditions and fed the same diet. One of the groups received daily
injections of vitamin D. The other group received injections of saline, which did
not contain vitamin D. All the rats were weighed weekly for 2 months. In this
experiment, the control was the:
A) Group receiving vitamin D.
B) Group receiving saline.
C) Average weight gain of the rats.
D) 2-month period of time.
E) The diet the rats ate
4) Which of the following are both universal characteristics of life?
A) The ability to grow and the ability to reproduce using DNA
B) The ability to reproduce using DNA and the ability to capture energy
from the sun
C) The ability to move and the ability to sense the environment
D) The ability to grow and the ability to think
E) The ability to reproduce and the ability to sleep
5) Which of the following levels of organization is the most inclusive?
A) Organism
B)
Population
C)
Biosphere
D)
Community
E)
Ecosystem
6) The "
A
B
C
D
E
7) The a
A)
B
C
D
E
8) The s
A)
B
C
D
E
9) A che
A
B
C
D
E
first cells" s
A) Prokaryo
B) Animals.
C) Plants.
D) Fungi.
E) Protists.
atoms of a s
) Have the
B) Can form
C) Can have
D) Can have
E) Always h
second orbi
) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
emical comp
A) A proton
B) A base
C) an acid
D) A hydrox
E) A hydrog
shown at th
tes.
single elem
same num
m bonds only
e different n
e different n
ave an ove
tal shell of
pound that
ide ion
en ion
he bottom o
ment
ber of elect
y with atom
numbers of
numbers of
erall positive
an atom ca
releases H
of this illustr
trons
ms of the sa
electrons
protons
e charge
an hold ___
H
+
into a sol
ration most
ame elemen
_ electrons
lution is cal
likely refer
nt
lled:
to:
13
14
10) A neutral solution has
A) No H+
B) No OH-
C) equal amounts of H+ and OH-
D) No pH
E) A pH of 0
11) What determines the cohesiveness of water molecules?
A) Hydrogen bonds
B) Ionic bonds
C) Covalent bonds
D) Hydrophobic interactions
E) High heat of vaporization
12) What bond is (are) easily disrupted in aqueous (water) solutions?
A)
Covalent
B) Polar covalent
C)
Ionic
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B, and C are correct
13) Large biological molecules are synthesized by removal of
A)
Carbon
B) Covalent bonds
C)
Water
D)
Oxygen
E)
Peptides
14) Which of the following is NOT one of the four most common elements found in
living organisms?
A) Hydrogen
B)
Carbon
C)
Oxygen
D)
Sulfur
E)
Nitrogen
15) If a reaction results in one molecule losing an electron and a second molecule
gaining that electron, the electron donor is said to be
A) Reduced
B)
Oxidized
C)
Transformed
D)
Activated
E)
Inhibited
15
16) A molecule of glucose has the molecular formula C
6
H
12
O
6
. Therefore it has __
atoms.
A) 3
B)
12
C)
6
D)
24
E) None of the above
17) A lipid is a polymer made up of which kind of monomers?
A) Glucose or modified glucose molecules
B) Amino Acids
C)
Nucleotides
D) Alternating sugar and phosphate groups
E) Fatty acids and glycerol
18) How are amino acids and proteins related?
A) Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids
B) Amino acids are formed by joining together many proteins
C) Proteins are a portion of an amino acid
D) Proteins are chains of carbohydrates; amino acids are a type of lipid
E) Amino acids are similar to fatty acids
19) Fish sperm consists mostly of the male fish’s DNA. If tested chemically, there
would be relatively high amounts of
A) Nitrogenous bases, sugar and phosphate groups
B) Phospholipids and steroids
C) Triglycerides and ATP
D) Proteins and stored fats
E) Amino acids and unsaturated fats
20) Which of the following statements about prokaryotes is incorrect?
A) Prokaryotes appeared on earth before eukaryotes
B) Prokaryotes have circular pieces of DNA within their nuclei
C) Prokaryotes contain cytoplasm
D) Prokaryotes contain ribosomes
E) Some prokaryotes con photosynthesize
21) In plant cells, chloroplasts
A) Serve the same purpose as mitochondria do in animal cells
B) Are the site of conversion of light energy into chemical energy
C) Play an important role in the breakdown of plant toxins
D) Generate turgor pressure
E) A and B are correct
16
22) Cell walls
A) Have many small holes
B) Only occur in plant cells
C) Dissolve when a plant dies
D) Are made primarily from phospholipids
E) All of the above
23) The movement of molecules across a membrane from an area of higher
concentration (of the molecule)to an area of lower concentration is best
described as
A)
Osmosis
B) Passive transport
C) Active transport
D) Electron transport
E)
Receptor-mediated
endocytosis
24) From your knowledge of the function of lysosomes, the pH of lysosomes is
likely to be
A)
Always
changing
D)
9
B)
5
E)
12
C)
Neutral
25) In a phospholipid bilayer, the
A) Phosphate groups are hydrophobic
B) Fatty acids tails are ionized
C) Fatty acid tails are hydrophilic
D) Proteins are located only between the two phospholipid bilayers
E) Phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward
the cytoplasm
26) If enzymes were used during a reaction, which of the following could be added
to a system to make the reaction occur faster?
A)
Water
B) A decrease in temperature
C) An small increase in heat energy
D) End products
E) All of the above
27) Which of the following does NOT describe a chemical reaction?
A) The products are placed to the left of the arrow
B) The reactants are placed to the left of the arrow
C) The arrow represents the direction in which the reaction proceeds
D) Atoms must be balanced on both sides of the equation
E) All of the above are true
17
28) Which of these processes occurs in the cytosol?
A) Glycolysis
B) Electron Transport System
C) Krebs Cycle
D)
Photosynthesis
E)
Chemiosmosis
29) During the Krebs cycle:
A) The products of glycolysis are further broken down, generating
additional ATP and NADH molecules
B) High-energy electron carriers pass their energy to molecules of sugar,
which store them as potential energy
C) Cellular respiration can continue even in the absence of oxygen
D) Pyruvate molecules are converted to lactate
E) NADH gets oxidized to NAD
+
30) The anaerobic breakdown of glucose is called
A)
Glycolysis
B) Electron Transport System
C) Krebs Cycle
D)
Photosynthesis
E)
Fermentation
31) What is the significance of the conversion of pyruvate to lactate during
fermentation?
A) Pyruvate becomes available to enter the mitochondrial matrix
B) The citric acid/Krebs cycle is initiated
C) NAD+ is regenerated for use in glycolysis
D) ATP is produced
E) The energy in pyruvate is used up
32) If a species contains 40% guanine in its DNA, what is the percentage of
adenine that it would contain?
A)
40%
B)
60%
C)
100%
D)
20%
E) 10%
33) In an analysis of the nucleotide composition of DNA to see which bases are
equivalent in amount, which of the following is true?
A) A = C
B) A = G and C = T
C) A + C = G + T
D) A + T = C + G
E) G = T
18
34) Which of the following statements about DNA replication is NOT correct?
A) The DNA molecule unwinds as the hydrogen bonds are broken
B) Replication occurs as each base is paired with one exactly like it
C) The process is known as semiconservative replication because one old
strand is conserved in the new molecule
D) The enzyme that replicates the DNA is DNA polymerase
E) The enzyme that links the Okazaki fragments together is DNA ligase
35) A “mini-gene” has the base sequence TACCCGTGCACG. If the T at the
beginning of the sequence is deleted, what will be the consequence?
A) All of the codons after that point will be changed
B) Only the amino acid coded for in that codon will be changed
C) RNA polymerase will skip that codon, but all the others will be read
normally.
D) RNA polymerase will correct the deletion, and a normal protein will be
produced
E) The first nucleotide is always replaced anyway, so there will be no
change.
36) Which point mutation would be most likely to have a catastrophic effect?
A) A base substitution
*B) A base deletion near the start of the coding sequence
C) The deletion of three bases near the start of the coding sequence
D) A base deletion near the end of the coding sequence
E) A base deletion at the very end of the coding sequence
37) The cell formed through fertilization is called a/an
A) Zygote
B)
Gamete
C) Sperm cell
D)
Ovum
E) Egg cell
38) Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct?
A) Prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase
B) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase
C) Anaphase, metaphase, telophase, prophase
D) Anaphase, prophase, telophase, metaphase
E) Prophase, telophase, anaphase, metaphase
39) Which does not occur in telophase?
A) Cytokinesis is under way
B) The nuclear membrane is being reconstructed
C) The centromeres split apart
D) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin
E) The nucleolus reforms
19
40) During which stage of meiosis does crossing-over occur?
A) Prophase 1
B) Metaphase 1
C) Anaphase 11
D) Prophase 11
E) Metaphase 11
41) Prior to protein synthesis, the DNA
A) Attracts tRNAs with appropriate amino acids
B) Must first undergo replication
C) Contains anticodons that must become codons
D) Serves as a template for the production of mRNA
E) Attaches to ribosomes for protein synthesis
42) Which of the classes of RNA molecules carries the amino acids that are added
to the growing polypeptide chain?
A) Ribosomal RNA
B) Transfer RNA
C) Messenger RNA
D)
Primary
RNA
E) Secondary RNA
43) The process of converting the “message” of mRNA into a sequence of amino
acids is called:
A) Translation
B)
Transcription
C)
Replication
D)
Activation
E)
Duplication
44) Suppose one strand of a “mini-gene” has the base sequence TACCCGGATTCA.
The last codon in the mRNA sequence will be:
A) UGA
B)
AGT
C)
AGU
D)
TCA
E)
ACT
45) Traits controlled by sex-linked recessive genes are expressed more often in
males because:
A) Males inherit these genes from their fathers
B) Males always carry two copies of these genes
C) All male offspring of a female carrier get the gene
D) The male has only one copy of these genes
E) Males get more copies of recessive genes than females do
20
46) A human male has ___ chromosomes with ___ sex chromosomes.
A) 46, XY
B) 48, XY
C) 46, XX
D) 48, XX
E) 48, YY
47) Which statement is NOT true about x-linked characteristics?
A) More males than females are affected
B) If a female has the characteristic, all her sons will show it
C) Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it
D) The characteristic often skips a generation, from a woman’s father
to her son
E) Males can have two copies of the allele for the trait, but females only
have one
48) Which organism is
least likely
to survive to reproduce?
A) A flower that produces a scent that attracts bees
B) A shrub that produces a toxin in its flower buds that repels deer
C) An animal with a mutation that causes skin color to be more noticeable
D) A dark-furred rodent that comes out only at night
E) a seahorse that mimics the weeds in which it lives
49) Evolution:
A) Occurs too slowly to be observed
B) Can occur in the wild but not in the laboratory
C) Is responsibility for the increased occurrence of antibiotic-resistant
bacteria
D) Is unrelated to mutations in DNA
E) All of the above are correct
50) Which mutation provides a survival advantage?
A) A flower that attracts more bees
B) A tree that grows shorter than the surrounding trees
C) A horse that lacks the ability to digest either grains or grass
D) A brightly colored fish that attracts predators
E) A shrub that loses the ability to make seeds
