Description
This collection helps students to build their analytical skill. Especially those students who are in pre_university level can practice with it to enhance analytical skill. The collection contains wide range of quantitative questions and other aptitude skill testing
Study Set Content:
General awareness and Aptitude test
21
GENERAL FACTS ABOUT THE
NATION
This section contains general questions about
India, the purpose of the section is to test the
general knowledge of the candidate about his
nation.
1.
Navy Day is observed on
a) Dec. 4
b) Dec. 25
c) Dec. 31
d) Jan. 1
2.
National Song (Vande Mataram) was first
sung on
a) 1896 session of INC
b) 1912 session of INC
c) 1927 session of INC
d) 1947 on eve of Independence
3.
The shorter version of India’s National
Anthem has a playing time of
a) 12 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 26 seconds
4.
The inscription of India’s National Emblem,
“Satya Meva Jayte” is a quotation from
a) Gandhijis writings
b) Nehru’s Speeches
c) Mundak Upnishad
d) None of these.
5.
Tiger was adopted as National Animal in
a) Nov. 1970
b) Nov. 1972
c) Dec. 1974
d) Oct. 1980
6.
There are how many languages and dialects
used in India.
a) < 100
b) between 100 to 500
c) between 500 to 1000
d) > 1000
7.
Post Office Day in India is celebrated
observed on
a) 9
th
October
b) 19
th
August
c) 5
th
April
d) 28
th
February
8.
BJP as a major party has won how many in
general elections in Indian History.
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
9.
Area wise t he biggest Pa rliamentary
Constituency in 2004 elections was
a) Ladakh (J and K)
b) Srinagar (J and K)
c) Barmer (Rajasthan)
d) Kutch (Gujrat)
10. The President of Jammu and Kashmir
National Conference (JKNC)
a) Farooq Abdullah
b) Omar Abdullah
c) Mohd. Ansari
d) None of these
11. The first IPS Women Officer was
a) Kiran Badi
b) Anna Chandi
c) Leila Seth
d) P.K. Thresia
12. The National Emblem of India was adopted
on
a) Aug. 15, 1947
b) Jan. 26, 1950
c) Jan. 26, 1957
d) Aug. 15, 1950
13. Who composed our National Anthem?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Sri Aurobindo Ghosh
c) Bankimchandra Chatterjee
d) None of these
14. When the National Anthem of India first
song?
a) 1947
b) 1950
c) 1896
d) 1911
22
General awareness and Aptitude test
15. The National Anthem was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly on
a) Dec. 27, 1950
b) Aug. 15, 1947
c) Jan 24, 1950
d) Jan, 26, 1947
16. How many stanzas are there in our National
Anthem?
a) Two
b) Three
c) Four
d) Five
17. What is the normal playing time of the full
version of our National Anthem?
a) 2 minutes
b) 1 minute
c) 52 seconds
d) 50 seconds
18. What is the playing time of the shorter
version of our National Anthem which is
played on ceremonial occasions?
a) 1minute
b) 50 seconds
c) 30 seconds
d) 20 seconds
19. Which among the following is India’s National
song?
a) Vande Mataram
b) Sare Jahan se Achcha
c) Jana-gana-mana
d) None of them
20. The largest and the oldest museum of India
is located in the state/union territory of
a) Andhra Pradesh
b) Uttar Pradesh
c) West Bengal
d) New Delhi.
21) Ms Harita Kaur has the distinction of being
the first Indian Woman
a) to be inducted into the Indian Navy
b) doctor to create a test tube baby
c) pilot to fly an aircraft Solo
d) Ambassador to a foreign country.
22) Who is the youngest player to score a century
in test cricket?
a) Haneef Mohammed
b) Mohd. Azharuddin
c) S. Gavaskar
d) S. Tendulkar
23) The first English newspaper in India was
started by
a) Dadabhai Naroji
b) J.A. Hickey
c) Lord William Bentinck
d) Rabindranath Tagore
24) The first nuclear reactor in India is
a) Dhruva
b) Harsha
c) Apsara
d) Vipula
25) The highest airfield in India is
a) Bhuntar
b) Pantnagar
c) Chushul
d) Parapani
26) The first “Financial Service Park” for industry
is being set up at
a) Pune
b) Surat
c) Gurgaon
d) Bangalore
27) The first Field Marshal of India was
a) A. Vaidya
b) K.M. Cariappa
c) Sunder Ji
d) S.H.F.J. Manekshaw
28) India’s first “Ladies Special” Suburban train
was started by which of the following zones
of Indian Railways?
a) Northern
b) Southern
c) Western
d) Eastern
29) Who was the first Indian to go into space?
a) Satish Dhawan
b) Ravi Malhotra
c) Rakesh Sharma
d) None of these
General awareness and Aptitude test
23
30) The largest dry dock in India is situated at
a) Marmugao
b) Cochin
c) Kolkata
d) Mumbai
31) Who composted the National Song of India?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
c) Sri Aurobindo
d) Mahatma Gandhi
32) Who rendered the English translation of our
National Song?
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
c) Sri Aurobindo
d) None of these
33) The National Song of India was adopted on
a) Jan 26, 1947
b) Jan 25, 1947
c) Jan 24, 1950
d) Jan 24, 1949
34) When was the National Calendar of India
introduced for official purpose?
a) April 1, 1957
b) April 1, 1947
c) March 22, 1950
d) March 22, 1947
35) Which is the first month of our National
Calender?
a) Bhadra
b) Phalguna
c) Chaitra
d) Kartika
36) The first date of our National Calendar
corresponds to which date of the Gregorian
Calendar?
a) April 1, 1950
b) March 22, 1950
c) March 22, 1957
d) March 31, 1957
37) Which is the last month of our National
Calender?
a) Bhadra
b) Phalguna
c) Chaitra
d) Asadha
38) Which among the following is the correct pair
of India’s National Animal and National
Flower?
a) Lion/Rose
b) Cow/Lotus
c) Tiger/Lotus
d) Lion/Lotus
39) Which among the following is the Republic
Day?
a) August 15
b) January 26
c) January 30
d) November 14
40) Which among the following is the
Independence day?
a) August 14
b) August 15
c) January 30
d) November 11
41) Match the following:
a) Teacher’s Day 1) 14
th
November
b) Children’s Day 2) 5
th
September
c) Martyr’s Day
3) 26
th
January
d) Republic Day
4) 30
th
January
a) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
b) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
c) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
d) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.
42) Who was the first President of India?
a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
d) V.V. Giri
24
General awareness and Aptitude test
KEY
1
a
14
d
27
d
40 b
2
a
15
c
28
c
41 b
3
c
16
d
29
c
42 b
4
c
17
c
30
a
43 a
5
b
18
d
31
b
44 c
6
d
19
a
32
c
45 b
7
a
20
c
33
c
46 c
8
b
21
c
34
a
47 b
9
a
22
d
35
c
48 c
10 b
23
b
36
c
49 c
11 a
24
c
37
b
50 b
12 b
25
c
38
c
51 d
13 a
26
c
39
b
43) Who was the first Vice-President of India?
a) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
d) G.S. Pathak
44) Who among the following had the longest
tenure as the President of India?
a) Dr. Zakir Hussain
b) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
d) V.V. Giri
45) Who became the first Acting Prime Minister
of India?
a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
b) Gulzarilal Nanda
c) Charan Singh
d) None of them
46) Who was the first Prime Minister of India
who did not face the Parliament during his
tenure?
a) Morarji Desai
b) Gulzari Lal Nanda
c) Charan Singh
d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
47) Who was the first Prime Minister who had
to step down as a result of defeat in election?
a) Charan Singh
b) Indira Gandhi
c) Morarji Desai
d) Gulzari Lal Nanda
48) Who was the first Prime Minister who had
to resign from the office?
a) Gulzarilal Nanda
b) Charan Singh
c) Morarji Desai
d) V.P. Singh
49) Who was the first woman President of Indian
National Congress?
a) Mrs. Vijayalakshmi Pandit
b) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
c) Dr. Annie Besant
d) None of them
50) Who was the first woman judge of Supreme
Court of India?
a) Miss Leila Seth
b) Miss M. Fathima Bibi
c) Miss Anna Chandi
d) Anna Georga Malhotra
51) Who was the first woman Chief Justice of
High Court in India?
a) Miss M. Fathima Beevi
b) Miss Anna Chandi
c) Anna Georga Malhotra
d) Miss Leila Seth
General awareness and Aptitude test
25
VOCABULARY TEST
Important Points
In this test the candidates are required to
form new words by suffixing or prefixing letters,
the section also tests the basic knowledge of
English language
In question 1 to 3 find the odd one out.
1) a) Tiger
b) Leopard
c) Snail
d) Fox
2) a) Steamer
b) yatch
c) Sail
d) Boat
3) a) Ball
b) Pingpang
c) Rugby
d) Bowling
4) Flex likes to _____
a) Play Catch
b) do catch
c) does catch
d) did catch
5) John is _____
a) Basket balling
b) Doing Basketball
c) Playing Basket Ball
d) Sporting Basketball_____
Select the word out of the choices that is
most appropriate the given meaning
6) Loud cry _____
a) Scream
b) Guilt
c) Voice
d) Ache
7) Look on face _____
a) direction
b) question
c) expression
d) concern
8) Weeping with short breaths _____
a) squeezing
b) staring
c) twinkling
d) sobbing
9) Told to be careful_____
a) managed
b) warned
c) noticed
d) remembered
10) Pardoned mistake_____
a) Forgave
b) Peered
c) warned
d) dejected
11) A baby bear is called_____
a) cub
b) fawn
c) calf
d) colt
12) A baby deer is called_____
a) cub
b) fawn
c) calf
d) colt
13) A baby cat is called a_____
a) chick
b) puppy
c) kitten
d) duckling
14) A baby fish is called a_____
a) Fishlet
b) fish
c) fawn
d) infant
15) A baby dog is called a _____
a) duckling
b) chick
c) puppy
d) kitten
16) Glasses are used for _____
a) cleaning
b) viewing
c) cutting
d) washing
17) Scissors are used for_____
a) Bending
b) plucking
c) measuring
d) clipping
18) Tweezers are used for_____
a) Plucking
b) clipping
c) measuring
d) chopping
19) Sprinkler is used for_____
a) Vaccuming Lawn
b) Cutting Grass
c) Watering lawn
d) Washing floor
20) A Mop is used for
a) Sweeping lawn
b) Watering lawn
c) Vaccuming floor
d) drying floor
26
General awareness and Aptitude test
Insert the word(s) that can be prefixed to
the words given to form new meaning full words.
21) __AGE __POSE __PART
a) S
b) R
c) IM
d) DE
22) __TIUE __ABLE __TAIN
a) SAG
b) MOV
c) MAN
d) CAP
23) __ROW __EATER __AT
a) M
b) TH
c) WH
d) C
24) __capable __consistent __tolerant
a) UN
b) IM
c) IN
d) AN
Tick mark the right meaning of the word
25) Contempt
a) Love
b) Beauty
c) Call
d) Hate
26) Fame
a) Publicity
b) Hate
c) Pleasure
d) Renown
27) Notorious
a) immortal
b) popular
c) beautiful
d) infamous
28) Excel
a) do well
b) run
c) please
d) make well
29) Furtive
a) secretive
b) good
c) bad
d) smoke
30) conflagration
a) popularity
b) goy
c) great man
d) great fire
31) candid
a) clear
b) secret
c) open
d) public
32) Ambiguous
a) great
b) bighearted
c) uncertain
d) clear
33) Festive
a) happy
b) colourful
c) bad
d) good
34) Feeble
a) strong
b) weak
c) excellent
d) good looking
35) Genuine
a) clear
b) middy
c) authentic
d) less
36) Belittle
a) enlarge
b) enfeeble
c) please
d) unimportant
37) Ignominy
a) popularity
b) expensive
c) disgrace
d) wickedness
38) Ingenious
a) clever
b) intelligent
c) dull
d) wickedness
39) Paramount
a) Miner
b) Minor
c) Important
d) Supreme
40) Lenient
a) tall
b) not strict
c) foolish
d) simple
41) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
a) fair
b) just
c) equitable
d) favourable
42) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
a) defendant
b) prosecutor
c) trial
d) judge
43) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
General awareness and Aptitude test
27
a) area
b) diameter
c) circumference d) quadrilateral
44) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
a) mayor
b) lawyer
c) governor
d) senator
45) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
a) acute
b) right
c) obtuse
d) parallel
46) Which word does NOT belong with the
others?
a) wing
b) fin
c) beak
d) rudder
For questions 47 to 49, find the word that
names a
necessary
part of the underlined word.
47) book
a) fiction
b) pages
c) pictures
d) learning
48) guitar
a) band
b) teacher
c) songs
d) strings
49) shoe
a) sole
b) leather
c) laces
d) walking
KEY
1
c
13 c
25 d
37 c
2
a
14 b
26 d
38 a
3
a
15 c
27 d
39 d
4
b
16 b
28 a
40 b
5
c
17 d
29 a
41 d
6
a
18 a
30 d
42 c
7
c
19 c
31 c
43 d
8
d
20 d
32 c
44 b
9
b
21 c
33 a
45 d
10 a
22 d
34 b
46 c
11 a
23 b
35 c
48 b
12 b
24 c
36 d
49 d
50 a
ENVIRONMENT
1.
Which natural disaster causes more deaths
than any other?
a) Volcano
b) Fire
c) Flooding
d) Earthquakes
2.
The natural process of the earths atmosphere
heating through the traping of re-radiated
infra-red radiation is known as
a) Global warming
b) Green house effect
c) Solar heating
d) Thermal inversion
3.
Temperate forests are likely to have which
of the following species of trees?
a) Maple
b) Spruce
c) Pine
d) All
4.
About what percentage of Earth people live
in areas where water shortage are common.
a) 40 percent
b) 30 percent
c) 45 percent
d) 25 percent
5.
Which of the following is not associated with
industrial food production?
a) The use of fossil fuels
b) Chemical fertilizers
c) Large amount of labour
d) Machinery
6.
With what bio-region is the team ‘steppe’
associated?
a) Coniferous forest
b) Tropical forests
c) Savanna
d) Grass land
7.
In which of the following area s do
international environmental treaties exist?
a) Fisheries
b) Whaling
c) Ocean pollution
d) All
8.
What percentage of earths water is fresh
water?
28
General awareness and Aptitude test
a) 60 percent
b) 70 percent
c) 50 percent
d) 30 percent
16 Tropo pause is the boundary line between
troposphere and ———
a) Mesosphere
b) Stratosphere
c) ionosphere
d) Exosphere
17. Shrubs, thickest and stunted trees like kikar,
jal and others are found in
a) evergreen forests
b) deciduous forests
c) dry forests
d) hill forests
18. The study of day-to-day variations in weather
is called
a) Climatology
b) Meteorology
c) Cyclogensis
d) None
19. The ionosphere includes
a) Mesosphere
b) Thermosphere
c) Exosphere
d) Both (b) and (c)
20. According to your text, what can “be thought
of as the genetic library that keeps life going
on earth”?
a) Bio-diversity
b) Human genes
c) The human genome project
d) None
Answer
1.
b
2.
b
3.
d
4.
a
5.
c
6.
d
7.
d
8.
b
9.
a
10. c
11. a
12. c
13. d
14. a
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. b
19. d
20. a
a) 75 percent
b) 3 percent
c) 27 percent
d) 10 percent
9.
Which country ratified the Kyoto protocol in
late 2004 and thus caused it to become
international law?
a) Russia
b) USA
c) China
d) India
10. The world’s growing appetite for what food
product is a leading cause of tropical
deforestation?
a) Lamb
b) Sugar
c) Beef
d) Pork
11. Between 1950 and 1980, an area of the size
of Denmark has been decertified in which
country.
a) China
b) India
c) Bangladesh
d) Iran
12. If current rates of deforestation continues in
south-east Asia, then how many years would
it take for the region to become completely
stripped of its forest?
a) 30
b) 40
c) 50
d) 60
13. In what type of bio-region is desertification
most likely to occur?
a) Temperate forest
b) Savanna
c) Tropical forests
d) Grass lands
14. Why is cattle ranching not sustainable in areas
that were formerly tropical forests?
a) Cattle reaching quickly exhausts the
nutrient-poor soil of tropical rainforests.
b) Cattle waste is toxic to rainforest soils.
c) Both (a) and (b)
d) None
15. According tom United National estimate,
about how much of the world’s range-lands
are threatened by desertification?
General awareness and Aptitude test
29
HEALTH
1.
Body temperature of a normal person:
a) 81.1°C
b) 36.9°F
c) 36.9°C
d) 98.6°F
2.
A healthy person’s B.P. is
a) 81/170 mm of mercury
b) 80/120 mm of mercury
c) 70/140 mm of mercury
d) 120/180 mm of mercury
3.
On kidney failure, blood is purified by
a) Dialysis
b) Biopsy
c) Angiography
d) Ultrasound
4.
AIDS spreads through
a) Bacteria
b) Protozoa
c) Virus
d) Fungi
5.
Heat beat of a normal person is
a) 50 per min
b) 70 per min
c) 80 per min
d) 100 per min
6.
Malaria is a disease which effects the
a) Heart
b) Lungs
c) Spleen
d) Kidney
7.
Which of the following pairs is incorrect?
a) Plague-rats
b) Rabies-dogs
c) Tapeworm – pig
d) Poliomyelitis – monkeys
8.
Typhoid and cholera are typical example of
a) Infectious diseases
b) Air-borne diseases
c) Water borne diseases
d) None
9.
Myopia is a disease connected with
a) Eyes
b) Brain
c) Liver
d) Heart
10. Lock Jaw i.e. difficulty in opening the mouth
is a symptom of
a) Diphtheria
b) Tetanus
c) Cholera
d) Plague
11. Volume of blood in a normal human body is
a) 3-4 litre
b) 5-6 litre
c) 8-10 litre
d) 10-12 litre
12. Which of the following is hereditary disorder?
a) Scurvy
b) Ricketus
c) Colour blindness
d) Night blindness
13. Main component of bones and teethes are
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Calcium phosphate
c) Calcium sulphate
d) Calcium nitrate
14. Diabetes is caused due to lack of
a) Sugar
b) Insulin
c) Calcium
d) Iron
15. Smallpox is a deadly and lightly contagious
a) Viral disease
b) Fungal disease
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None
16. Test tube baby means
a) Ovum developed without fertilization in
test tubes
b) Ovum fertilized in test tube and developed
in uterus
c) Ovum fertilized and developed in test
tube.
d) Ovum fertilized in uterus and developed
in test tubes.
17. A person of which of the following blood
groups can receive blood of any group?
a) A
b) AB
c) B
d) O
18. ECG is used for the diagnosis of ailments of
a) Brain
b) Heart
c) Kidneys
d) Lungs
19. Ricketts is a disease of
a) Bones
b) Tissue
c) Muscles
d) Blood
30
General awareness and Aptitude test
20. Which of the following vitamins promotes
healthy functioning of eyes in human beings?
a) Vit B
b) Vit C
c) Vit A
d) Vit D
Answer
1.
c
2. d
3.
a
4.
c
5. b
6.
c
7.
d
8. c
9.
a
10. b
11. b
12. c
13. b
14. b
15. a
16. b
17. b
18. b
19. a
20. c
SPORTS
1.
Olympic games 2012 were held at
a) England
b) China
c) Atlanta
d) Tokyo
2.
Commonwealth games 2010 held in
a) Manchester
b) Victoria
c) Delhi
d) Perth
3.
Asian games 2010 held in
a) Qatar
b) China
c) South Korea
d) Thailand
4.
Who scored double hundred first time in ODI
cricket match?
a) Saurav Ganguali
b) M.S. Dhoni
c) Rickey Ponting
d) Sachin Tendulkar
5.
The first athlete who won eight gold medals
in individual events in one Olympic games is
a) Micheal Phelps
b) Milkha Singh
c) Mike Powell
d) P.T. Usha
6.
Saina Nehwal is associated with which
game.
a) Tennis
b) Badminton
c) Lawn Tennis
d) Athletic
7.
Ranji Trophy is associated with which sport.
a) Hockey
b) Football
c) Cricket
d) Polo
8.
Wimbledon Trophy is associated with which
sport.
a) Golf
b) Tennis
c) Badminton
d) Cricket
9.
Name the playing area of boxing
a) Rink
b) Link
c) Ring
d) Court
10. Name the national sport of India
a) Cricket
b) Hockey
c) Judo
d) Badminton
11. Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium is located at
a) Mumbai
b) Chennai
c) New Delhi
d) Kolkata
12. The team dribble is associated with which
sport
a) Basketball
b) Badminton
c) Baseball
d) Billiards
13. T-20 world cup cricket Tournament in 2012
was held in
a) South Africa
b) Sri Lanka
c) England
d) India
14. Third IPL 20-20 Championship was won by
a) Mumbai Indians
b) Royal Challengers
c) Chennai Super Kings
d) Kolkata Knight Riders
15. Hockey World cup 2010 was won by
a) Genmany
b) Pakistan
c) Holland
d) Australia
General awareness and Aptitude test
31
16. Who is second individual top scorer in test
crickets after Brain Lara.
a) Mathew Hayden
b) Rahul Dravid
c) Rickey Ponting
d) Saurav Ganguli
17. Player who hit six sixes in an over in 20-20
world cup 2007
a) Sahid Afridi
b) Yuvraj Singh
c) Yusuf Pathan
d) Jacques Kellis
18. In 2011, Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratan Award was
given to
a) Gagan Narang
b) Abhivan Bindra
c) Saina Nehwal
d) Saniya Mirza
19. Who become the first Indian to win a Gold
Medal at World Wrestling Championships?
a) Susheel Kumar
b) Vijender Singh
c) Kuldeep Singh
d) Rajeev Tomar
20. Tejaswina Sawant is Associated with which
sport.
a) Rifel Shooting
b) Wrestling
c) Boxing
d) Badminton
Answer
1.
a
2.
c
3.
b
4.
d
5.
a
6.
b
7.
c
8.
b
9.
c
10. b
11. c
12. a
13. b
14. d
15. d
16. a
17. b
18. a
19. a
20. a
MEDIA AND ENTERTAINMENT
1.
In Oscar award 2012, the best picture is
a) No country for oldman
b) The hurt locker
c) Slumdog millionaire
d) War Horse
2.
In 59
th
national film awards, the best feature
film is
a) Delhi 6
b) Deool
c) Putaani Parti
d) Kutty srank
3.
In 2012, 54
th
Grammy awards function was
held in
a) Bangkok
b) Philippines
c) Los angeles
d) Thialand
4.
Miss Universe 2012 is
a) Olivia Culpo
b) Dayana Mendoza
c) Ksenia Sukhinova
d) Stephenia Fernadiz
5.
Nobel prize 2009 for peace was given to
a.
Ms Herta Meullar
b.
Barrack obama
c.
Willard S boyle
d.
Ada yonath
6.
Best film in IIFA award 2012 was
a.
Paa b. Zindagi Na Milegi Dobara
c.
Delhi – 6
d. All the best
7.
Who has taken over mobile company Hutch
a.
Airtel
b. Videocon
c.
Docomo
d. Vodafone
8.
World’s tallest building is
a.
Eiffle tower
b. Qutab minar
c.
Burj khalifa
d.
World trade center
9.
The film ‘Peepli live’ is produced by
a.
Ajay Devgan
b. Aamir khan
c.
Saroj khan
d.
David Dhawan
32
General awareness and Aptitude test
10. Bhangra is the popular dance of
a.
Bihar
b. Punjab
c.
Kerala
d.
Himachal Pradesh
11. Garba is the popular dance of
a.
Gujarat
b. West Bangal
c.
Rajasthan
d. Punjab
12. World’s highest radio station is
a.
All India radio, Leh
b.
All India ratio, Kashmir
c.
All India radio, Delhi
d.
None
13. ——— holds the world record for maximum
number of song recordings
a.
Asha Bhonsle
b.
Lata Mangeshkar
c.
Kishor Kumar
d.
Mohd. Rafi.
14. Bihu is the popular dance of
a.
Punjab
b. Kerala
c.
Assam
d. H.P.
15. Nautanki is the popular dance of
a.
Uttar Pradesh
b. Meghalaya
c.
Karnataka
d. Tamil Nadu
16. Best song written for Motion picture,
television or other visual media is
a.
Jai Ho
b.
Jiyo Utho Bado Teeto
c.
Vende Matram
d.
None
17. In 57
th
national film awards, best actor award
was won by
a.
Farook Sheikh
b.
Sharukh Khan
c.
Amitabh Bachchan
d.
Aamir Khan
18. In Oscar award 2010, best actor award was
won by
a.
Mo’ Nique
b.
Jeff Bridges
c.
Michael Giacchins
d.
Christoph waltz
19. Life time achievement award was given by
a.
Pt. Bhimsen Joshi
b.
Lata Mangeshkar
c.
Asko Parpola
d.
Dev Anand
20. Phalke Ratan award 2009 was given to
a.
Amitabh Bachchan
b.
Anil Kappor
c.
Dev Anand
d.
Shammi Kapoor
Answers
1.
d
2.
b
3.
c
4.
a
5.
b
6.
b
7.
d
8.
c
9.
b
10. b
11. a
12. a
13. b
14. c
15. a
16. a
17. c
18. b
19. a
20. c
FACTS ABOUT PUNJAB
1.
The area of Punjab is
a) 40300 square Km
b) 60302 square Km
c) 50362 square Km
d) 55000 square Km
2.
Number of divisions of Punjab is
a) Six
b) Four
c) Five
d) Eight
3.
Total no. of districts in Punjab is
a) 22
b) 17
c) 12
d) 13
General awareness and Aptitude test
33
4.
Total no. of tehsils in Punjab is
a) 70
b) 81
c) 20
d) 80
5.
Total no. of blocks in Punjab is
a) 86
b) 120
c) 70
d) 72
6.
Total number of Lok Sabha Seats in Punjab
is
a) 17
b) 13
c) 20
d) 10
7.
Number of Primary health centres in Punjab
is
a) 219
b) 484
c) 445
d) 212
8.
Density of population in 2011 in Punjab is
a) 219 persons per square km.
b) 550 persons per square km.
c) 212 persons per square km.
d) 480 persons per square km.
9.
Literacy percentage in 2011 in Punjab is
a) 76.7%
b) 72%
c) 60%
d) 63.2%
10. The largest (areawise) district in Punjab is
a) Amritsar
b) Jalandhar
c) Ferozepur
d) Ludhiana
11. The smallest (areawise) district in Punjab is
a) Fatehgarh Sahib
b) Jalandhar
c) Amritsar
d) Ludhiana
12. Where is regional engineering college in
Punjab
a) Amritsar
b) Jalandhar
c) Patiala
d) Chandigarh
13. The area between two rivers is called
a) Malwa
b) Majha
c) Doaba
d) Plain
14. The height of Bhakra dam is
a) 765 feet
b) 800 feet
c) 700 feet
d) 740 feet
15. Where is Science city Located in Punjab
a) Ludhiana
b) Amritsar
c) Jalandhar
d) Ferozepur
16. Where is Hosiery industry in Punjab
a) Amritsar
b) Ludhiana
c) Jalandhar
d) Ferozepur
17. In which direction of India, Punjab is located?
a) North east
b) East
c) Northwest
d) South
18. Length of Ravi river is
a) 450 km
b) 500 km
c) 720 km
d) 600 km
19. Longest river in Punjab is
a) Beas
b) Ravi
c) Satluj
d) Chenab
20. How many rivers are there in Punjab
presently
a) Four
b) Three
c) Five
d) Two
Answer
1.
c
2.
b
3.
a
4.
b
5.
a
6.
b
7.
c
8.
b
9.
a
10.
a
11.
a
12. b
13.
c
14. a
15. c
16.
b
17. a
18. c
19.
c
20. b
34
General awareness and Aptitude test
B. NON-VERBAL REASONING
Important Points
The purpose of non-verbal reasoning test is to find out how well a candidate understands ideas
which are not presented in words or numbers, but in figures, diagrams, pictograms presented in terms
of size or shape or position or quantity or other non-verbal, non-numerical forms. What is important
in solving the problems of non-verbal reasoning tests is to follow a logical procedure. This latent
logical procedure will help the candidate to find out the principle on which the problem figure is
based.
i)
Odd One Out
Multiple Choice Questions
Directions: In the given four figures, three
of them are similar in some respect, while one is
different. Out of the four figures select the figure
which is different.
1.
a
b
c
d
2.
a
b
c
d
3.
a
b
c
d
4.
a
b
c
d
5.
a
b
c
d
6.
a
b
c
d
7.
a
b
c
d
8.
a
b
c
d
J
A
E O
9.
a
b
c
d
10.
a
b
c
d
11.
a
b
c
d
General awareness and Aptitude test
35
12.
a
b
c
d
13.
a
b
c
d
14.
a
b
c
d
15.
a
b
c
d
16.
a
b
c
d
17.
a
b
c
d
18.
a
b
c
d
19.
a
b
c
d
20.
a
b
c
d
21.
a
b
c
d
22.
a
b
c
d
23.
a
b
c
d
24.
a
b
c
d
25.
a
b
c
d
26.
a
b
c
d
36
General awareness and Aptitude test
27.
a
b
c
d
28.
a
b
c
d
29.
a
b
c
d
30.
a
b
c
d
Key
1.
a
11.
b
21.
d
2.
d
12.
d
22.
c
3.
c
13.
d
23.
c
4.
b
14.
c
24.
d
5.
d
15.
d
25.
d
6.
a
16.
a
26.
a
7.
b
17.
b
27.
b
8.
a
18.
c
28.
d
9.
b
19.
b
29.
d
10.
b
20.
d
30.
c
ii) Completion of Series
Important Points
In this test, a set of 3/4/5 figures is given.
Each figure changes in design from the preceding
one in a particular order. Candidates are required
to choose the correct answer figure, which would
best continue the series.
This test judges your pattern perception. You
have to discern the pattern which may be
quantitative, qualitative, rotative, multi-relational,
or ratio-based. The series-may also be based on
mixed operations, in which various elements
change their directions/positions, increase or
decrease in number as well as change qualitatively.
This test also includes questions on correct
sequence of figures. Students are asked as to
interchange of which two figures would make
the series correct.
Multiple Choice Questions
Directions:
There are two set of figures. One
set is called problem figures and the other set is
called answer figures. Problem set figures from
some kind of series. Select one figure from the
answer set figures which will continue the series
in the problem set figures.
General awareness and Aptitude test
37
Problem Figures
Answer Figures
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.
7.
8.
38
General awareness and Aptitude test
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
Key
1
d
5
a
9
c
13
d
2
c
6
d
10 d
14
c
3
c
7
c
11 b
15
d
4
d
8
d
12 b
General awareness and Aptitude test
39
iii) Analog Test
'Analogy' implies corresponding. In the problems based on analogy, a pair of related figures is
provided and a similar relationship is to be established between two other figures, by selecting one or
both of them from a set of alternatives.
Multiple Choice Questions
Directions: Figures 1 & 2 in Problem figures are related in a particular manner. Establish the
same relationship between figures 3 and 4 by choosing a figure from among the four alternative
answer figures, which would replace the question mark in problem figures.
Problem Figures
Answer Figures
1.
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
2.
c
c
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
3.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
4.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
5.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
6.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
40
General awareness and Aptitude test
7.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
8.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
9.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
10.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
11.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
12.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
13.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
14.
?
1
2
3
4
a
b
c
d
