Description
In this collection there will be a bunch of questions include histology, cytology and embryology
This collection is useful for medical, dental and pharmacy students and will help students to prepare for STATE exam
Study Set Content:
HISTOLOGY, CYTOLOGY, AND EMBRYOLOGY:
TESTS WITH ANSWERS
1.CYTOLOGY
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions.
Choose the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the plasmalemma is true, EXCEPT:
A
– includes elementary cell membrane; B – its supermembranous layer consists of
glycolipids and glycoproteins; C
– its submembranous layer contains filaments and
microtubules; D
– is a semi-permeable cell boundary; E – is not an obligatory cell
component.
2. The plasma membrane functions are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– is a selectively permeable barrier; B – is the site for hormone receptors; C – provides
cell-to-cell interaction; D
– is the primary protein synthesis site; E – takes part in the active
and passive transport.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the microvilli is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are plasmalemma projections; B – contain microtubules; C – amplify cell surface area;
D
– form the brush border of intestinal epithelium; E – contain microfilaments.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the cilia is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are plasmalemma projections; B – contain nine peripheral doublets and the central
pair of microtubules; C
– are not visible in light microscope; D – their basal bodies are
similar to centrioles; E
– are movable organelles.
5. The intercellular junction where ionic channels pierce the adjacent membranes is
called:
A
– desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
6. The disk-shaped intercellular junction where a dense plaque with filaments is
present on the cytoplasmic surface of each opposing plasma membrane is called:
A
– desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
7. The intercellular junction that blocks the substance access to the intercellular
space is called:
A
– desmosome; B – nexus; C – tight junction; D – synapse; E – lateral interdigitations.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the mitochondria is true, EXCEPT:
A
– have a double-membrane structure; B – its inner membrane infolds to form cristae; C –
its matrix contains enzymes of Krebs’ cycle; D – its cristae contain enzymes of the
electron-transport chain; E
– are not able to produce ATP.
9. The cytoplasm basophilia is inherent in cells that:
A
– have cilia; B – accumulate lipids; C – actively synthesize proteins; D – accumulate
glycogen; E
– synthesize mucus.
10. The microfilaments are composed of the following proteins:
A
– actin; B – desmin; C – keratin; D – vimentin; E – integrin.
11. These filaments belong to the population of intermediate filaments, EXCEPT:
A
– tonofilaments; B – neurofilaments; C – actin filaments; D – glial filaments; E – desmin
filaments.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the nuclear envelope structure is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of two membranes separated by the perinuclear space; B – contains nuclear
pores providing communication between the nucleus and cytoplasm; C
– its outer
membrane is studded with ribosomes; D
– its inner membrane has a fibrous lamina
anchoring chromatin; E
– its outer membrane is continuous with Golgi apparatus.
13. Each of the following statements concerning chromatin is true, EXCEPT:
A
– euchromatin is a lightly stained and dispersed; B – heterochromatin is a densely
stained and condensed; C
– heterochromatin takes part in transcription; D – two types of
chromatin may be transformed one into another; E
– the abundance of euchromatin gives
evidence of intense protein synthesis.
14. Each of the following statements concerning the nucleolus functions is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– the nucleolar organizer region contains genes encoding mRNA; B – rRNA is
synthesized and assembled into ribosome subunits; C
– ribosome subunits leave the
nucleus through nuclear pores; D
– in the cytoplasm, ribosomes either assemble into
polysomes or bind to rER; E
– the number and size of nucleoli give evidence of intense
protein synthesis.
15. Each of the following statements concerning mitosis is true, EXCEPT:
A
– results in the production of two identical daughter cells; B – is direct cell division; C –
equally divides chromosomes between daughter cells; D
– maintains the diploid number of
chromosomes; E
– consists of four phases.
16. Each of the following statements concerning the mitotic spindle is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contains microtubules; B – its components are attached to a chromosome at the
kinetochore; C
– is responsible for chromosome movement in the anaphase; D – is formed
before chromosome condensation; E
– centrioles take part in its formation.
17. The following cytoplasmic components are inclusions, EXCEPT:
A
– lipid droplets; B – glycogen clumps; C – lysosomes; D – mucous granules; E – protein
granules.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
18. The glycocalyx is composed of:
(1) glycoproteins (2) cholesterol (3) glycolipids (4) glycogen
19. The rER synthesizes:
(1) secretory proteins (2) cell membrane proteins (3) lysosome enzymes (4) cytosol
proteins
20. The abundance of rER in the cytoplasm can be identified by:
(1) diffuse basophilia (2) acidophilia (3) absence of staining (4) local basophilia
21. The functions of sER are as follows:
(1) lipid metabolism (2) carbohydrate metabolism (3) detoxification (4) release and
recapture of calcium ions in muscles
22. The following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus are true:
(1) consists of several disk-shaped saccules arranged in a stack (2) its
cis
(convex) face is
associated with small vesicles from ER (3) its
trans
(concave) face is associated with
vacuoles (4) it is abundant in secretory cells
23. The following statements regarding the Golgi apparatus functions are true:
(1) accumulates, modifies, and packs secretory products (2) forms primary lysosomes (3)
takes part in the synthesis of lipoproteins, glycoproteins, and glycolipids (4) manufactures
membrane proteins
24. The lysosome membranes and lysosome enzymes are formed in:
(1) rER (2) sER (3) Golgi apparatus (4) free ribosomes
25. The following statements regarding the lysosome functions are true:
(1) protect cells from waste products accumulation (2) degrade aged organelles (3) take
part in phagocytosis (4) provide autolysis
26. The following statements regarding the peroxisome are true:
(1) is a spherical structure surrounded by unit membrane (2) its matrix contains the
enzyme
catalase
(3) its catalase converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen (4) is
derived from rER
27. The following statements regarding the centrioles are true:
(1) exist as a pair of cylinder-like structures oriented at right angle to one another (2) each
centriole has nine peripheral microtubule triplets but lacks the central pair (3) before cell
division they replicate themselves by forming procentrioles (4) during cell division,
separate and migrate to the cell poles
28. The cytoskeleton includes:
(1) actin filaments (2) intermediate filaments (3) microtubules (4) centrioles
29. The following statements regarding the microtubule functions are true:
(1) are parts of the cytoskeleton (2) form the mitotic spindle (3) take part in intracellular
transport and cell movement (4) constitute cilia, flagella, and centrioles
30. The cells containing a lot of free ribosomes synthesize:
(1) secretory proteins (2) cytosol proteins (3) cell membrane proteins (4) proteins for cell
growth and differentiation
31. The following events take place in the G1 period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) intense protein synthesis (2) DNA reduplication (3) daughter cell growth (4) self-
replication of centrioles
32. The following events take place in the S period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) DNA reduplication (2) daughter cell growth (3) self-replication of centrioles (4) intense
energy production
33. The following events take place in the G2 period of the mitotic interphase:
(1) intense energy production (2) ATP accumulation (3) intense tubulin synthesis (4) DNA
reduplication
34. The following events take place in the mitotic prophase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) nuclear envelope
disorganization (4) centriole migration to the opposite cell poles
35. The following events take place in the mitotic metaphase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) chromosome assembling on the equatorial plate (3)
nucleolus disappearance (4) the mitotic spindle formation
36. The following events take place in the mitotic anaphase:
(1) chromosome condensation (2) nucleolus disappearance (3) the mitotic spindle
formation (4) movement of chromosomes to the opposite cell poles
37. The following events take place in the mitotic telophase:
(1) chromosome decondensation (2) nuclear envelope restoration (3) nucleolus re-
appearance (4) cytoplasm division
38.The absence of cytoplasmic division (cytokinesis) in mitosis results in:
(1) cell death (2) generation of a subsequent mitosis (3) formation of haploid cell (4)
formation of multinuclear cell
2. EPITHELIAL TISSUE
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the mesothelium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is derived from mesoderm; B – is simple; C – its cells are squamous; D – not each of
its cells reaches the lumen; E
– lines the peritoneal cavity.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the pseudostratified epithelium is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– all its cells rest on the basement membrane; B – all its cells reach the apical surface;
C
– contains goblet cells; D – is ciliated; E – contains short (basal) cells.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the basement membrane is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– separates epithelium from the underlying connective tissue; B – is absent in some
epithelia; C
– contains type lV collagen and laminin; D – serves for epithelial cell
attachment; E
– takes part in nutrition of epithelium.
4. The cardinal features of the epithelia are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– form the stroma of organs; B – look like sheets; C – are derived from all germ layers;
D
– regenerate intensively; E– their cells are polarized.
5. The epithelia are simple if:
A
– their cells are polarized; B – their cells form sheets; C – all their cells rest on the
basement membrane; D
– not all their cells reach the apical surface; E – their cells are
continuously sloughed.
6. The epithelia are stratified if:
A
– their cells are continuously sloughed; B – their cells form sheets; C – their cells are
polarized; D
– all their cells can divide; E – not all their cells are in contact with the
basement membrane.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the stratified squamous
nonkeratinized epithelium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contains the spinulate cell layer; B – contains the basal layer with stem cells; C –
contains the superficial layer of flat anucleate cells; D
– its superficial cells are
continuously sloughed; E
– lines the oral cavity, the esophagus, the rectum, and the
vagina.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the stratified transitional epithelium
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is capable of keratinization; B – consists of the basal, intermediate, and superficial
layers; C
– changes the number of its layers, depending on the degree of stretching; D –
its superficial cells are dome-shaped; E
– lines the urinary system organs.
9. The criteria of the exocrine gland classification are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– branching of the duct; B – the number of secretory portions; C – the shape of secretory
portions; D
– contact of cells with the basement membrane; E – the mode of secretion.
10. Each of the following statements concerning a compound branched
tubuloalveolar gland is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its duct branches; B – its secretory portions are numerous; C – it has one secretory
portion; D
– its secretory portions may be flask-like; E – its secretory portions may be tube-
like.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
11. The following characteristics of the epithelia are true:
(1) line internal and cover external body surfaces (2) are avascular (3) rest on the
basement membrane (4) abound in the extracellular substance
12. The following statements regarding the stratified squamous keratinized
epithelium are true:
(1) its basement membrane is sinuous (2) covers the skin (3) its basal layer contains stem
cells (4) its superficial cells are flat and anucleate
13. The stratified squamous keratinized epithelium from the thin skin in comparison
with the same epithelium from the thick skin is characterized by the following:
(1) lacks the stratum lucidum (2) contains the poor-developed stratum granulosum (3)
contains the thin stratum corneum (4) lacks the stratum spinosum
14. The epithelia are specialized for the following functions:
(1) mechanical and chemical protection (2) outer exchange (3) secretion (4) maintenance
of homeostasis
15. The epithelium lining the intestine is characterized by the following features:
(1) contains goblet cells (2) is simple columnar (3) has the brush border (4) is specialized
for absorption
16. The specializations of epithelial cells on the apical surface are as follows:
(1) hemidesmosomes (2) microvilli (3) nexuses (4) cilia
17. The specializations of epithelial cells on the basal surface are as follows:
(1) hemidesmosomes (2) desmosomes (3) plasma membrane infoldings (4) nexuses
18. The specializations of epithelial cells on the lateral surface are as follows:
(1) tight junctions (2) desmosomes (3) nexuses (4) hemidesmosomes
19. The following statements regarding the apocrine mode of secretion are true:
(1) inheres in some sweat glands (2) inheres in the mammary gland (3) is characterized by
releasing the apical cell cytoplasm with secretory material (4) its mechanism is exocytosis
20. The following statements regarding the merocrine mode of secretion are true:
(1) is characterized by releasing the apical cell cytoplasm with secretory material (2)
inheres in sebaceous glands (3) is characterized by releasing the entire cell with secretory
material (4) its mechanism is exocytosis
21. The following statements regarding the holocrine mode of secretion are true:
(1) inheres in sebaceous glands (2) its mechanism is exocytosis (3) is characterized by
releasing the entire cell with secretory material (4) inheres in sweat glands
22. In embryogenesis the epithelia are derived from:
(1) mesoderm (2) ectoderm (3) endoderm (4) mesenchyme
3. BLOOD
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the erythrocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are 7-8
m biconcave discs; B
– contain cytoskeletal microfilaments; C – lack nuclei
and organelles; D
– are cell fragments; E – contain hemoglobin.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the platelets is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contain small dense nuclei; B – are megakaryocyte fragments; C – are surrounded by
the plasma membrane; D
– exhibit hyalomere and granulomere; E – contain serotonin and
thromboplastin.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the leukocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are motile; B – function in loose connective tissue; C – have nuclei and cytoplasm; D –
all of them are capable of phagocytosis; E
– take part in defence reactions.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the neutrophils is true, EXCEPT:
A
– their nuclei consist of 3-5 lobes; B – contain azurophilic granules; C – contain specific
granules; D
– comprise 6-8% of all leukocytes; E – are microphagocytes.
5. The azurophilic (primary) granules occurring in all kinds of leukocytes contain:
A
– histamine; B – hydrolytic enzymes; C – heparin; D – bactericidal substances; E –
thromboplastin.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the band neutrophils is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are mature neutrophils; B – have horseshoe-shaped nuclei; C – comprise about 5% of
all neutrophils; D
– their increase in number is called “a shift of the leukocytic formula to
left”; E – they increase in number in inflammatory conditions.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the basophils is true, EXCEPT:
A
– comprise 0.5-1% of all leukocytes; B – their nuclei are masked by granules; C – their
specific granules stain metachromatically; D
– their granules contain heparin and
histamine; E
– they are macrophage precursors.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the monocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are the largest circulating blood cells; B – have kidney-shaped nuclei; C – contain
specific granules; D
– contain azurophilic granules; E – comprise 6-8% of all leukocytes.
9. The following blood cells are direct macrophage precursors:
A
– lymphocytes; B – basophils; C – eosinophils; D – monocytes; E – neutrophils.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the lymphocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are small, medium-sized, and large; B – comprise 60-70% of all leukocytes; C – have
large round nuclei; D
– have narrow rims of the light blue cytoplasm; E – are divided into T
and B lymphocytes.
11. The blood cells responsible for humoral immunity and converting to plasma
cells are as follows:
A
– T lymphocytes; B – basophils; C – monocytes; D – neutrophils; E – B lymphocytes.
12. The blood cells primarily responsible for cell-mediated immunity are as follows:
A
– T lymphocytes; B – eosinophils; C – B lymphocytes; D – basophils; E – neutrophils.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The following statements regarding the reticulocytes are true:
(1) are immature red blood cells (2) contain reticular clusters of ribosomes (3) comprise
about 1% of all erythrocytes (4) increase in number in cases of bleeding or hemolysis
14. The erythrocyte functions are as follows:
(1) oxygen transport (2) blood coagulation (3) carbon dioxide transport (4) phagocytosis of
bacteria
15. The platelet functions are as follows:
(1) gas transport (2) blood coagulation (3) phagocytosis of bacteria (4) clotting
16. In embryogenesis blood originates from:
(1) mesoderm (2) ectoderm (3) endoderm (4) mesenchyme
17. The neutrophil functions are as follows:
(1) histamine inactivation (2) release of histamine (3) macrophagocytosis (4) phagocytosis
and destruction of bacteria
18. The eosinophil functions are as follows:
1) histamine inactivation (2) release of histamine (3) inactivation and killing of parasitic
agents (4) secretion of immunoglobulins
19. The following statements regarding the eosinophils are true:
(1) their nuclei have 2-3 lobes (2) lack primary granules (3) their specific granules contain
the crystalline core (4) comprise 20-30% of all leukocytes
20. The pathological processes causing an increase in the number of blood
eosinophils are as follows:
(1) bleeding (2) allergic reactions (3) hemolytic diseases (4) parasite invasion
21. Agranulocytes include the following leukocytes:
(1) lymphocytes (2) basophils (3) monocytes (4) eosinophils
22. Granulocytes include the following leukocytes:
(1) neutrophils (2) basophils (3) eosinophils (4) monocytes
23. The key cells of the immune system are the following blood formed elements:
(1) T lymphocytes (2) neutrophils (3) B lymphocytes (4) basophils
24. Lymphocytes are classified into T and B types according to:
(1) surface determinants (2) ultrastructure (3) site of differentiation (4) shape
4. CONNECTIVE TISSUE
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. The connective tissue functions are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– exchange between a body and the environment; B – immune and phagocytic defence;
C
– exchange between blood and tissues; D – support; E – repair.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the loose connective tissue is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contains relatively fewer fibres, but more amorphous ground substance; B – its fibres
are arranged in parallel bundles; C
– contains various cells; D – is located under epithelia
and around blood vessels; E
– is mainly specialized for the transport function.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the fibroblasts is true, EXCEPT:
A
– include fibroclasts, myofibroblasts, and fibrocytes; B – are predominant cells in
connective tissues; C
– contain granules with heparin and histamine; D – contain well-
developed rER and Golgi apparatus; E
– manufacture the extracellular matrix precursors.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the macrophages is true, EXCEPT:
A
– arise from blood monocytes; B – contain numerous primary and secondary lysosomes;
C
– belong to the mononuclear phagocyte system; D – have variable shape, because they
move in connective tissues; E
– manufacture antibodies.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the mast cells is true, EXCEPT:
A
– abound in metachromatic granules; B – contain heparin and histamine; C – are located
near the blood vessels; D
– manufacture collagen precursors; E – are involved in
inflammatory and anaphylactic reactions.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the plasma cells is true, EXCEPT:
A
– manufacture collagen fibres; B – arise from activated B lymphocytes; C – are ovoid in
shape; D
– have acentric nuclei; E – contain a lot of rER.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the white adipose cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– have a thin rim of cytoplasm; B – contain numerous mitochondria; C – possess
flattened nuclei; D
– contain a single fat drop; E – are responsible for the fat storage.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the brown adipose cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– generate heat; B – contain numerous mitochondria; C – have round active nuclei; D –
contain many small fat droplets; E
– their narrow cytoplasm possesses few organelles.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the reticular connective tissue is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– forms the stroma of hemopoietic organs; B – consists of reticular cells and reticular
fibres; C
– is the embryonic connective tissue; D – its fibres are argyrophilic; E – creates
the microenvironment for hemopoietic cells.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the mucous connective tissue is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– is the embryonic connective tissue; B – is located in the umbilical cord; C – contains a
jelly-like matrix; D
– generates heat in infants; E – is specialized for amortization.
11. In embryogenesis the all types of connective tissue originate from:
A
– neural tube; B – mesenchyme; C – ectoderm; D – endoderm; E – notochord.
12. Specialized connective tissues are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– mucous tissue; B – reticular tissue; C – dense regular tissue; D – white adipose tissue;
E
– brown adipose tissue.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The connective tissue extracellular matrix is composed of:
(1) collagen fibres (2) amorphous ground substance (3) elastic fibres (4) blood vessels
14. The following statements regarding the collagen fibres are true:
(1) are composed of tropocollagen (2) have great tensile strength (3) are eosinophilic (4)
electron micrographs reveal their cross-banding pattern
15. The following statements regarding the elastic fibres are true:
(1) require special staining to be observed by light microscopy (2) are coiled and branching
(3) are able to stretch (4) consist of procollagen
16. The following statements regarding the reticular fibres are true:
(1) mostly consist of type III collagen (2) are stained by silver impregnation (3) are located
in the stroma of hemopoietic organs (4) are secreted by reticular cells
17. The amorphous ground substance of the loose connective tissue matrix
includes:
(1) glycosaminoglycans (2) proteoglycans (3) glycoproteins (4) water
18. The following statements regarding the dense irregular connective tissue are
true:
(1) contains more fibres but less amorphous ground substance (2) its fibres are oriented in
different directions (3) is located in the dermal reticular layer (4) forms organ capsules
19. The following statements regarding the dense regular connective tissue are true:
(1) contains more fibres but less amorphous ground substance (2) its fibres are arranged
in parallel bundles (3) forms tendons and ligaments (4) contains various cells
20. The macrophages are specialized for the following functions:
(1) phagocytosis of bacteria, foreign particles, and cell debris (2) presentation of antigens
to lymphocytes (3) release of interleukin, pyrogen, and other substances (4) manufacture
of collagen fibres
21. The following statements regarding the plasma cells are true:
(1) have basophilic cytoplasm (2) light areas with Golgi apparatus are adjacent to their
nuclei (3) manufacture antibodies (4) release histamine and heparin
22. The connective tissue cells that make up the capillary wall are as follows:
(1) pericytes (2) mast cells (3) endothelial cells (4) reticular cells
23. The following statements regarding the brown adipose tissue are true:
(1) forms the stroma of hemopoietic organs (2) is found in infants as well as in hibernating
animals (3) is the embryonic connective tissue (4) has a rich vascular supply
24. The following statements regarding the pigment cells are true:
(1) are responsible for the synthesis and storage of melanin (2) arise from the neural crest
(3) cluster in the dermis of coloured skin areas (4) are involved in immune reactions
5. CARTILAGE AND BONE
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the hyaline cartilage location is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– covers articular surfaces of bones; B – forms the fetal skeleton; C – constitutes bone
epiphyseal plates; D
– forms the auditory tube; E – is found in the respiratory tract.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the hyaline cartilage matrix is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is firm and pliable; B – abounds in elastic fibres; C – contains type II collagen fibrils; D
– is highly permeable; E – is impermeable for immunoglobulins.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the perichondrium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– provides nutrition for cartilages; B – its outer layer is fibrous; C – its inner layer is
cellular; D
– is avascular; E – provides appositional growth of cartilages.
4. Each of the following statements regarding the chondroblasts is true, EXCEPT:
A
– originate from chondrogenic cells; B – are located in the inner perichondrium layer; C –
are arranged in isogenous groups; D
– synthesize the cartilage matrix; E – are capable of
division.
5. Each of the following statements regarding the chondrocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– arise from chondroblasts; B – can form isogenous groups; C – are capable of division;
D
– take part in the cartilage matrix synthesis; E – are located in the inner perichondrium
layer.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the periosteum is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contains osteocytes; B – is composed of fibrous and cellular layers; C – contains
osteogenic cells and osteoblasts; D
– provides blood supply to bones; E – provides growth
and repair of bones.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the osteoblasts is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from osteogenic cells; B – are located in the inner periosteum layer; C –
produce the organic portion of bone matrix; D
– possess the ruffled border; E – contain
well-developed rER and Golgi apparatus.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the osteocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– produce the organic portion of bone matrix; B – differentiate from osteoblasts; C –
house in their own lacunae; D
– possess narrow cytoplasmic processes; E – maintain
bone homeostasis;
9. Each of the following statements concerning the osteoclasts is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are multinucleated giant cells; B – are located near the blood vessels; C – have the
ruffled border; D
– possess osteolytic activity; E – are derived from osteocytes.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the coarsely bundled bone tissue
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a primary immature bone tissue; B – contains thick bundles of collagen fibrils; C –
occurs mostly in adult body; D
– is replaced by lamellar bone tissue; E – is located near
the skull sutures, in tooth sockets, and at insertion sites of tendons.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the osteon is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a morphostructural unit of the compact bone substance; B – is composed of 4-20
concentric lamellae; C
– contains a central canal; D – is avascular; E – contains
osteocytes in lacunae between lamellae.
12. The bone tissue embryonic origin is:
A
– notochord; B – mesenchyme; C – ectoderm; D – endoderm; E – neural crest.
13. In contrast to the perichondral bone, the endochondral bone contains:
A
– residues of calcified cartilage; B – bone matrix; C – osteoblasts; D – osteocytes; E –
osteoclasts.
14. The epiphyseal plate function is:
A
– formation of the perichondral collar; B – formation of periosteal buds; C – formation of
the cartilage model; D
– calcification of the bone matrix; E – bone growth.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
15. The following characteristics of the perichondrium are true:
(1) surrounds cartilages, except articular surfaces (2) consists of two layers (3) is a
connective tissue envelope of cartilages (4) contains blood vessels, chondrogenic cells,
and chondroblasts
16. The following characteristics of the hyaline cartilage are true:
(1) lacks blood vessels (2) contains zones of young cartilage and mature cartilage (3)
undergoes age-related regressive changes (4) its matrix can become mineralized
17. The cartilages grow:
(1) not at all (2) only interstitially (3) only appositionally (4) interstitially and appositionally
18. The following statements regarding the elastic cartilage are true:
(1) is found in the auricle, the auditory tube, and the epiglottis (2) abounds in elastic fibres
(3) never undergoes calcification (4) lacks the perichondrium
19. The following statements regarding the fibrocartilage are true:
(1) its collagen fibres are arranged in parallel bundles (2) exists in intervertabral disks (3) is
found at the junction sites between tendons and articular cartilage (4) lacks the
perichondrium
20. The following statements regarding the bone matrix are true:
(1) prevents free diffusion (2) contains type I collagen (3) contains calcium, phosphorus,
and bicarbonate (4) abounds in elastic fibres
21. The following statements regarding the lamellar bone tissue are true:
(1) replaces primary bone (2) is immature bone tissue (3) forms spongy and compact bone
substance (4) its collagen fibres are arranged in coarse bundles
22. The following statements regarding the bone spongy substance are true:
(1) is found in the epiphysises of long bones (2) its lamellae are irregularly arranged (3)
contains bone marrow (4) contains osteons
23. The following statements regarding the bone compact substance are true:
(1) is found in the diaphysis of long bones, in flat and short bones (2) is avascular (3) its
lamellae are arranged in osteons (4) contains bone marrow
24. Haversian canal contains:
(1) blood vessels (2) nerves (3) some loose connective tissue 4) few osteoblasts and
osteoclasts
25. The following statements regarding the intramembranous bone formation are
true:
1) is direct bone formation (2) is characteristic of long bone development (3) is
characteristic of flat bone development (4) is indirect bone formation
26. The endochondral bone formation begins in:
(1) the epiphysis of the cartilage model (2) epiphyseal plates (3) mineralized cartilage (4)
the perichondrium of the cartilage model diaphysis
27. The following structures are formed in the endochondral bone formation:
(1) endochondral bone (2) perichondral bone (3) periosteal buds (4) epiphyseal plates
28.
The following structures make up
the arrangement of the long bone diaphysis:
(1) osteons (2) outer circumferential lamellae (3) interstitial lamellae (4) inner
circumferential lamellae
6. MUSCLE TISSUE
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the skeletal muscle tissue is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is derived from the myotome; B – consists of striated muscle fibres; C – connective
tissue surrounds each fibre; D
– possesses satellite cells; E – muscle fibres are joined by
intercalated discs.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the smooth muscle tissue is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is derived from the mesenchyme; B – consists of muscle fibres; C – consists of muscle
cells; D
– its cells lack cross striation; E– its contraction is involuntary.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the cardiac muscle tissue is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consists of muscle symplasts; B – consists of muscle cells; C – is striated; D – is
derived from the mesoderm; E
– its cells are joined by intercalated discs.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the striated myofibril is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consists of thick and thin filaments; B – contains actin and myosin; C – includes
myoglobin; D
– has dark and light bands; E – is subdivided into sarcomeres.
5. The main stages of the skeletal muscle tissue embryonic development are as
follows, EXCEPT:
A
– myoblasts arise from the myotome; B – myoblasts arise from the sclerotome; C –
myoblasts fuse; D
– myotubes result from fusion of myoblasts; E – muscle fibres
differentiate from myotubes.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the sarcotubular system is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– includes T tubules; B – includes sER (L tubules); C – forms triads; D – produces
proteins; E
– contains terminal cisterns.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the smooth muscle cell is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contains one nucleus; B – is surrounded by the basal lamina and reticular fibres; C –
contains actin and myosin; D
– is joined with other cells by nexuses; E – contains T
tubules.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the red muscle fibres is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contain a large amount of myoglobin; B – possess numerous mitochondria; C – are
rich in oxidative enzymes; D
– are adapted to fast short-lived contractions; E – show mild
ATP-ase cytochemical staining.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the white muscle fibres is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contain a large amount of glycogen; B – contain few mitochondria; C – are adapted to
slow repetitive contractions; D
– show marked ATP-ase cytochemical staining; E – are not
rich in oxidative enzymes.
10. The typical cardiac muscle cells contain the following structures, EXCEPT:
A
– one or two nuclei; B – many mitochondria; C – striated myofibrils; D – T tubules; E –
pinocytotic vesicles.
11. The muscle cells producing hormones are:
A
– atypical cardiac myocytes; B – smooth myocytes; C – atrial myocytes; D – satellite
cells; E
– none of them.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the striated myofibril structure is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– A band is anisotropic; B – I band is isotropic; C – Z line bisects I band; D – H zone
transects I band; E
– H zone has a dark M line in its centre.
13. Each of the following statements concerning striated myofibrils is true, EXCEPT:
A
– include thick and thin filaments; B – lack crossbanding; C – run parallel to the long axis
of fibre through its entire length; D
– are held by intermediate filaments from desmin and
vimentin; E
– are surrounded by the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
14. Each of the following statements concerning striated myofibrils is true, EXCEPT:
A
– I band contains only thin filaments; B – thin filaments anchor at Z line; C – A band
contains both thin and thick filaments in 6 to 1 ratio; D
– M line is formed by the midpoints
of thick filaments; E
– H zone contains only thin filaments.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
15. The characteristics of the skeletal muscle as an organ are true:
(1) is formed of striated fibres (2) contains the endomisium (3) contains the perimysium (4)
contains the epymysium
16. The following statements regarding a sarcomere are true:
(1) is a distance between two successive Z lines (2) is a functional unit of striated
myofibrils (3) is similarly arranged in skeletal tissue and cardiac muscle (4) includes 0.5 of
I band + A band + 0.5 of I band
17. The cross striation of muscle fibres is due to:
(1) cross disposition of myofibrils (2) the presence of dark and light bands (3) the presence
of many nuclei (4) alternation of dark and light bands
18. The following statements regarding the atypical cardiac muscle cells are true:
(1) contain few myofibrils (2) contain many glycogen granules (3) contain few mitochondria
(4) make up the heart impulse-generating system
19. The following statements regarding the repair of skeletal muscle fibres are true:
(1) satellite cells divide (2) myoblasts arise from satellite cells (3) myoblasts fuse to form
myotubes (4) myotubes differentiate to muscle fibres
20. The following statements regarding the satellite cells of the skeletal muscle
tissue are true:
(1) are stem cells (2) exist in G
0
phase (3) take part in muscle repair (4) are located
between the basement membrane and the muscle fibre plasmalemma
21. The following statements regarding the T tubules of striated muscle fibres are
true:
(1) are plasmalemma invaginations (2) take part in the release of calcium ions (3) are
located between adjacent terminal cisterns (4) take part in the diad formation
22. The intercalated disks of the cardiac muscle cells have the following
specializations:
(1) sites of myofibril attachment (2) desmosomes (3) interdigitations (4) gap junctions
23. The following statements regarding the smooth muscle cells are true:
(1) are fusiform (2) contact by gap junctions (3) produce reticular fibrils (4) lack
sarcolemmal vesicles
24. The following statements regarding the cytoplasmic and peripheral densities of
the smooth muscle cells are true:
(1) are analogous to Z lines (2) contain
α-actinin (3) function as myofilament attachment
sites (4) facilitate the spread of excitation
25. The following statements regarding the sarcolemmal vesicles (caveolae) of the
smooth muscle cells are true:
(1) are present along the periphery of the cell cytoplasm (2) are associated with sER (3)
are associated with the cell membrane (4) function to take up and release calcium ions
26. The following statements regarding the smooth muscle tissue regeneration are
true:
(1) smooth muscle cells can divide (2) minor wounds heal by new smooth muscle cells (3)
large defects are closed by connective tissue (4) regeneration is not possible at all.
27. The following statements regarding the cardiac muscle tissue regeneration are
true:
(1) cardiac muscle cells can divide (2) the cardiac muscle lacks capacity
for reparative
regeneration (3) minor wounds heal by new muscle cell production (4) any defect is closed
by connective tissue scar
7. NERVOUS TISSUE
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. The following organelles are plentiful in the neuron cytoplasm, EXCEPT:
A
– Golgi apparatus; B – mitochondria; C – microtubules and microfilaments; D –
centrioles; E
– rER.
2. Nissl bodies seen by light microscopy as basophilic clumps are:
A
– sER; B – Golgi apparatus; C – mitochondria; D – microtubules; E – rosettes of
polysomes and rER.
3. The neurofibrils seen by light microscopy are the fixation artefact and represent
aggregated
:
A
– mitochondria; B – Golgi apparatus; C – microtubules and microfilaments; D – rER; E –
sER.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the axon is true, EXCEPT:
A
– lacks rER and polysomes; B – lacks mitochondria; C – contains many microtubules; D
– demonstrates axonal transport; E – conducts impulses away from the soma.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the synapses is true, EXCEPT:
A
– transfer impulses from one neuron to another; B – are chemical and electrical; C –
interact with stimuli and generate nervous impulses; D
– are axodendritic, axosomatic, and
axoaxonic; E
– may be exciting and inhibitory.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the chemical synapse is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– its presynapse contains vesicles with a neurotransmitter; B – its presynaptic
membrane is thickened; C
– its postsynaptic membrane has receptors; D – has a synaptic
cleft; E
– lacks glial cells.
7. The following glial cells belong to the macroglia, EXCEPT:
A
– oligodendrocytes; B – protoplasmic astrocytes; C – glial microphagocytes; D – fibrous
astrocytes; E
– ependymal cells.
8. The glial cells arising from the blood monocytes are:
A
– microglia; B – oligodendrocytes; C – protoplasmic astrocytes; D – fibrous astrocytes; E
– ependymal cells.
9. The glial cells lining the brain ventricles and the spinal canal are:
A
– microglia; B – oligodendrocytes; C – protoplasmic astrocytes; D – fibrous astrocytes; E
– ependymal cells.
10. The glial cells forming sheaths around neuronal processes in the nerve fibres
are:
A
– protoplasmic astrocytes; B – fibrous astrocytes; C – microglia; D – oligodendrocytes
(lemmocytes); E
– ependymal cells.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the myelinated fibres is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– their outer sheath is neurilemma; B – contain several axis cylinders; C – their inner
sheath is myelinated; D
– conduct impulses at a rate of 80 to120 m/s; E – possess nodes
of Ranvier.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the myelinated sheath is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– includes several layers of the lemmocyte plasma membrane; B – has lipoprotein
organization with lipid predominance; C
– contains nucleus and organelles of Schwann
cell; D
– is formed by mesaxon winding around the axis cylinder; E – possesses Schmidt-
Lanterman clefts.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the receptors is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are terminal modifications of sensory neuron dendrites; B – are the motor nerve
endings; C
– if they contain only nerve fibres, they are free; D – if they contain glial cells,
they are nonfree; E
– if they are enclosed by connective tissue capsules, they are
encapsulated.
14. Each of the following statements concerning the lamellar (Pacinian) corpuscle is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a deep pressure receptor; B – contains the inner flask with a sensory fibre; C –
contains the outer flask from glial cells; D
– is the motor nerve ending; E – possesses
connective tissue capsule from multiple layers.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
15. According to the morphological classification the neurons are:
(1) multipolar (2) bipolar (3) pseudounipolar (4) sensory
16. According to the functional classification the neurons are:
(1) sensory (2) motor (3) associative (4) bipolar
17. In embryogenesis the CNS and PNS neurons develop from:
(1) mesenchyme (2) neural tube (3) mesoderm (4) neural crest
18. In embryogenesis the CNS and PNS glial cells arise from:
(1) neural tube (2) neural crest (3) mesenchyme (4) mesoderm
19. The following statements regarding the dendrites are true:
(1) are numerous or single (2) conduct impulses toward the soma (3) have spines (4) have
extensive arborizations
20. The following statements regarding the axon are true:
(1) is always single (2) is the longest and thickest neuronal process 3) branches to form
collaterals (4) branches at its end
21. The chemical synapses transfer impulses in one direction because:
(1) their presynapse has vesicles with a neurotransmitter (2) they are nexuses (3) their
postsynaptic membrane has receptors (4) they are only exciting
22. The following statements regarding the regeneration of the nervous tissue are
true:
(1) neurons are unable to divide (2) glial cells can divide (3) neuron processes can
regenerate (4) the neuronal soma can regenerate after injury
23. The following statements regarding the glial cells are true:
(1) take part in neuron nutrition (2) participate in regeneration of nerve fibres (3) form a
protective barrier around neurons (4) maintain electrolyte balance
24. The glial cell functions are:
(1) support and defence of neurons (2) transport of substances from blood (3) formation of
nerve fibre sheaths (4) conduction of nervous impulses
25. The following statements regarding the unmyelinated fibres are true:
(1) contain several axis cylinders (2) their sheaths are formed by lemmocytes (3) conduct
impulses at a rate of 8 -10 m/s (4) possess nodes of Ranvier
26. The following statements regarding the node of Ranvier are true:
(1) lacks myelin (2) is the site between adjacent Schwann cells (3) provides saltatory
conduction of nervous impulses (4) contains Schwann cell nucleus
27. The following statements regarding the Schmidt-Lanterman cleft are true:
(1) is the site between adjacent Schwann cells (2) is a myelin portion where the lemmocyte
cytoplasm is preserved (3) provides saltatory conduction of impulses (4) is nutrition canal
28. The following statements regarding the motor end plate are true:
(1) contains acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter (2) is formed by ending of the motor
neuron axon (3) exists on skeletal muscle fibres (4) contains glial cells
8. NERVOUS SYSTEM
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the spinal ganglion is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contains pseudounipolar neurons; B – is associated with the spinal cord ventral root; C
– its neuron dendrites form part of the spinal nerve; D – its neuron dendrites possess
receptors; E
– its neurons are surrounded by satellite cells.
2. The dorsal root of the spinal cord is formed by:
A
– the axons of motor neurons of the spinal cord; B – the dendrites of neurons of spinal
ganglia; C
– the dendrites of motor neurons of the spinal cord; D – the axons of neurons of
spinal ganglia; E
– the axons of interneurons of the spinal cord.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the autonomic ganglia is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contain multipolar neurons; B – the axons of their neurons are unmyelinated; C – the
axons of their neurons end on skeletal muscles; D
– contain oligodendrocytes; E –
preganglionic fibres form synapses on their neurons.
4. The gray matter of the spinal cord consists of the following structures, EXCEPT:
A
– connective tissue trabeculae; B – multipolar neurons; C – astrocytes; D –
oligodendrocytes; E
– microglia.
5. The white matter of the spinal cord consists of the following structures, EXCEPT:
A
– astrocytes; B – microglia; C – myelinated fibres; D – multipolar neurons; E –
oligodendrocytes.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the cerebellar cortex is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– its molecular layer contains stellate and basket cells; B – lacks blood vessels; C – its
granular layer contains granule cells and Golgi type II cells; D
– its middle layer contains
Purkinje cells; E
– contains protoplasmic astrocytes, oligodendrocytes, and microglia.
7. Each of the following statements concerning Purkinje cells from the cerebellar
cortex is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are located in single layer; B – their dendrites arborize in the molecular layer; C – their
axons enter the white matter; D
– are inhibitory neurons; E – conduct impulses away from
the cortex.
8. The cerebellar cortex neurons exciting Purkinje cells are:
A
– granule cells; B – basket cells; C – Golgi type II cells; D – stellate cells; E – pyramidal
cells.
9. The cerebellar cortex neurons connecting Purkinje cells along a folium are:
A
– basket cells; B – pyramidal cells; C – stellate cells; D – Golgi type II cells; E – granule
cells.
10. The cerebellum white matter contains the following structures, EXCEPT:
A
– mossy afferent fibres; B – climbing afferent fibres; C – efferent fibres (axons of
Purkinje cells); D
– glial cells; E – ependymal cells.
11. The mossy afferent fibres enter the cerebellar cortex and synapse with the
dendrites
of:
A
– basket cells; B – Purkinje cells; C – stellate cells; D – granule cells; E – Golgi type II
cells.
12. The climbing afferent fibres enter the cerebellar cortex and synapse with the
dendrites of:
A
– basket cells; B – Purkinje cells; C – stellate cells; D – granule cells; E – Golgi type II
cells.
13. Each of the following statements concerning efferent fibres of the cerebral
cortex is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are the axons of pyramidal cells from the 3rd and the 5th layers; B – convey impulses
to the cortex; C
– may end in the same hemisphere; D – may end in the other hemisphere;
E
– may leave the brain and enter the spinal cord.
14. Each of the following statements concerning afferent fibres of the cerebral
cortex is true, EXCEPT:
A
– convey impulses to the cortex; B – end and branch in the 1st and the 3rd layers; C –
carry impulses away from the cortex; D
– form transversal plexuses; E – synapse with
cortex interneurons.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct..
15. The peripheral nerves are composed of:
1) nerve fibres (2) epineurium (3) perineurium (4) endoneurium
16. The ventral root of the spinal cord is formed by:
(1) the axons of motor neurons of the spinal cord (2) the axons of sensory neurons of
spinal ganglia (3) the axons of autonomic interneurons of the spinal cord (4) the dendrites
of sensory neurons of spinal ganglia
17. The following statements regarding the spinal cord neurons are true:
(1) are multipolar (2) are motor and associative (3) their axons may leave the spinal cord
through the ventral root (4) their axons may extend from the gray matter into the white
matter
18. The white matter of the spinal cord is formed by axons of neurons from:
(1) spinal cord (2) spinal ganglia (3) brain (4) autonomic ganglia
19. The following statements regarding the gray matter of the spinal cord are true:
(1) its anterior horns contain motor somatic neurons (2) its posterior horns contain
interneurons for sensory impulses (3) its lateral horns contain autonomic interneurons (4)
its commussure contains the central canal
20. The following statements regarding the white matter of the spinal cord are true:
(1) its posterior columns contain ascending sensory tracts (2) its anterior columns contain
mainly descending motor tract (3) its lateral columns contain both ascending and
descending tracts (4) its blood vessels extend from the spinal cord pia mater
21. The cerebellar cortex is composed of the following layers:
(1) molecular (2) of Purkinje cells (3) granular (4) pyramidal
22. The cerebellar cortex neurons connecting Purkinje cells across a folium are:
(1) granule cells (2) stellate cells (3) Golgi type II cells (4) basket cells
23. The cerebellar cortex neurons inhibiting Purkinje cells are:
(1) stellate cells (2) basket cells (3) Golgi type II cells (4) granule cells
24. The following statements regarding the cerebellar islands are true:
(1) are located in the granular layer of the cortex (2) contain synapses between mossy
fibres and granule cell dendrites (3) contain synapses of Golgi type II cell axons with
granule cell dendrites (4) contain Purkinje cell axons
25. The cerebral cortex includes the following layers:
(1) molecular (2) external granular (3) external pyramidal (4) layer of Purkinje cells
26. The cerebral cortex includes the following layers:
(1) internal granular (2) internal pyramidal (3) multiform (polymorphic) (4) molecular
27. The following statements regarding the granular type of the cerebral cortex are
true:
(1) contains a well-developed external granular layer (2) contains a well-developed internal
granular layer (3) is characteristic of sensitive areas of the cortex (4) contains a well-
developed internal pyramidal layer
28. The following statements regarding the agranular type of the cerebral cortex are
true:
(1) contains a well-developed external pyramidal layer (2) contains a well-developed
internal pyramidal layer (3) is characteristic of motor areas of the cortex (4) contains a
well-developed polymorphic layer
9. PRIMARY SENTIENT SENSE ORGANS
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the cornea is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is transparent; B – is avascular; C – receives nutrition by diffusion; D – is composed of
five layers; E
– contains numerous melanocytes.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the corneal epithelium is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is stratified squamous nonkeratinized; B – is transitional; C – is bathed by tears; D – is
highly innervated; E
– arises from ectoderm.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the ciliary body is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is avascular; B – is a modification of the eye vascular tunic; C – has processes with
suspensory ligaments; D
– contains intrinsic muscles; E – takes part in accommodation.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the iris is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a modification of the eye vascular tunic; B – blocks light entering except via the
pupil; C
– lacks colour; D – contains intrinsic muscles; E – regulates the amount of light
entering the eye.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the photoreceptors is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are bipolar neurons; B – form synapses with amacrine cells; C – their dendrites have
the outer and inner segments; D
– their axons synapse with bipolar cells; E – their cell
bodies constitute the retinal outer nuclear layer.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the rods is true, EXCEPT:
A
– number about 120 million; B – their outer segments include flat membranous disks; C
– contain rhodopsin; D – are responsible for black-white vision; E – are excited by bright
light.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the cones is true, EXCEPT:
A
– their outer segments contain plasma membrane invaginations; B – their inner
segments contain an ellipsoid; C
– are excited by low-intensity light; D – are responsible
for colour vision; E
– contain iodopsin.
8. The retinal inner nuclear layer contains nuclear regions of the following cells,
EXCEPT:
A
– bipolar cells; B – ganglion cells; C – horizontal cells; D – amacrine cells; E – Muller
cells.
9. The retinal ganglion cell layer contains the cell bodies of:
A
– photoreceptors; B – horizontal cells; C – amacrine cells; D – bipolar cells; E – ganglion
neurons.
10. The retinal optic nerve fibre layer contains the axons of neurons:
A
– amacrine; B – ganglion; C – bipolar; D – horizontal; E – photoreceptor.
11. The optic nerve is composed of:
A
– photoreceptor dendrites; B – bipolar cell axons; C – amacrine cell dendrites; D –
ganglion cell axons; E
– horizontal cell axons.
12. The retinal external and internal limiting membranes are formed by the
processes of:
A
– glial cells; B – photoreceptors; C – amacrine cells; D – ganglion cells; E – horizontal
cells.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the pigmented epithelium is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consists of columnar cells; B – its cells have processes investing the outer segments
of photoreceptors; C
– contains melanin granules; D – contains the photosensitive
pigment; E
– is the outermost retinal layer.
14. Each of the following statements concerning the pigmented epithelium functions
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– transports vitamin A and nutrients from the choroid; B – phagocytoses shed tips of
rods and cones; C
– absorbs light; D – takes part in light adaptation; E – transmits nervous
impulses.
15. Each of the following statements concerning the olfactory cells is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are bipolar neurons; B – their dendrites are characterized by bulbous projections; C –
the cilia extend from their olfactory knobs; D
– they are mechanoreceptors; E – their
unmyelinated axons are gathered into the fila olfactoria.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
16. The following statements regarding the sclera are true:
(1) consists of dense connective tissue (2) maintains the eye shape (3) serves as the
attachment site for oculomotor muscles (4) is transparent
17. The following statements regarding the aqueous humor are true:
(1) is produced by ciliary processes (2) flows from the posterior eye chamber into the
anterior eye chamber (3) outflows via the canal of Schlemm into the eye venous system
(4) is related to glaucoma
18. The following statements regarding the eye limbus are true:
(1) contains the canal of Schlemm (2) is corneal-scleral junction (3) its blood vessels
provide corneal nutrition (4) contains muscles of accommodation
19. The following statements regarding the choroid are true:
(1) consists of loose connective tissue (2) is highly vascular (3) contains numerous
melanocytes (4) absorbs light
20. The following statements regarding the lens are true:
(1) is an epithelial structure (2) possesses its own capsule (3) consists of transparent
fibres (4) is biconvex
21. The following statements regarding the vitreous body are true:
(1) is refractile gel (2) contains few hyalocytes (3) is composed of water, collagen, and
hyaluronic acid (4) takes part in accommodation
22. The following statements regarding the photoreceptors are true:
(1) their inner segments are cell metabolic centres (2) their tips are shed and
phagocytosed (3) their outer segments face the back of the eye (4) their axons synapse
with horizontal cells and bipolar neurons
23. The following neurons of the retina constitute the initial link of the optic tract:
(1) photoreceptors (2) bipolar cells (3) ganglion cells (4) amacrine cells
24. The following neurons form horizontal bonds within the retinal layers:
(1) Muller cells (2) horizontal cells (3) bipolar cells (4) amacrine cells
25. The retinal layer of rods and cones consists of:
(1) photoreceptor dendrites (2) cell bodies of rods and cones (3) pigmented epithelium
processes (4) axons of rods and cones
26. The retinal outer plexiform layer contains:
(1) photoreceptor axons (2) bipolar cell dendrites (3) horizontal cell processes (4) the first
synapse of the optic tract
27. The retinal inner plexiform layer contains:
(1) bipolar cell axons (2) ganglion cell dendrites (3) the second synapse of the optic tract
(4) amacrine cell processes
28. The following statements regarding the optic disk are true:
(1) lacks rods and cones (2) the optic nerve leaves the eye here (3) lacks visual activity (4)
contains only two retinal layers
29. The following statements regarding the fovea centralis are true:
(1) is a depression on the posterior retinal wall (2) contains only cones (3) is a region of
the greatest visual activity (4) the optic nerve leaves the eye here
30. The olfactory epithelium consists of the following cells:
(1) olfactory cells (2) basal cells (3) supporting cells (4) glial cells
31. The following statements regarding the olfactory reception are true:
(1) olfactory cilia contain chemoreceptors (2) odoriferous substances dissolve in the
olfactory gland secretion (3) interaction between the olfactory molecules and receptors
causes the cell membrane depolarization (4) after interaction molecules are carried away
by olfactory gland secretion to prepare receptors for new stimuli
10. SECONDARY SENTIENT SENSE ORGANS
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the cochlea is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is formed by a spiral bony tube; B – contains the osseous core, modiolus; C – consists
of the saccule and utricle; D
– houses the cochlear duct; E – contains the spiral organ of
Corti.
2. The spiral ganglion is located in:
A
– scala media; B – spiral lamina of the modiolus; C – scala vestibuli; D – tunnel; E –
scala tympani.
3. The sensory neurons of the organ of hearing are located in:
A
– stria vascularis; B – spiral ligament; C – tunnel; D – spiral ganglion; E – spiral organ.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the basilar membrane is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– separates the scala media and the scala vestibuli; B – consists of a thick layer of
amorphous material; C
– contains keratin-like fibrils; D – the spiral organ is located on its
upper surface; E
– separates the scala media and the scala tympani.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the stria vascularis is true, EXCEPT:
A
– secrets endolymph; B – rests on the spiral ligament; C – consists of the
psuedostratified epithelium; D
– is vascularized by capillaries; E – is a thickened
periosteum of the spiral lamina.
6. The following cells of the spiral organ enclose the tunnel of Corti:
A
– outer hair cells; B – outer phalangeal cells; C – pillar cells; D – inner hair cells; E –
inner phalangeal cells.
