Description
In this collection there will be a bunch of questions include histology, cytology and embryology
This collection is useful for medical, dental and pharmacy students and will help students to prepare for STATE exam
Study Set Content:
7. Each of the following statements concerning the outer hair cells is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are columnar in shape; B – are chemoreceptors; C – are arranged in three rows; D –
their stereocilia are arranged in V-formation; E
– form point-like contacts with afferent
fibres.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the inner hair cells is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are arranged in a single row; B – are bulbous in shape; C – their stereocilia are
arranged in a straight line; D
– are chemoreceptors; E – form cup-like contacts with
afferent fibres.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the vestibular macula is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contains supporting cells; B – contains two types of neuroepithelial cells; C – is
covered with the otolithic membrane containing otoliths; D
– is a sensor of gravity; E –
detects angular acceleration.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the vestibular cristae is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are three in number; B – their covering contains otoliths; C – are oriented
perpendicular to each other; D
– are covered with the cupula; E – are the sensors of
angular acceleration.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the vestibular neuroepithelial cells
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are bulbar and columnar in shape; B – rest on supporting cells; C – possess numerous
stereocilia; D
– lack the kinocilium; E – are mechanoreceptors.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the neuroepithelial cells of the
taste buds is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are not capable of renewal; B – are arranged around the taste pit; C – possess
microvilli on their apical surface; D
– are chemoreceptors; E – synapse with afferent nerve
fibres.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The following statements regarding the modiolus are true:
(1) is osseous (2) contains the cochlear nerve (3) has a spiral lamina (4) is the cochlear
axis
14. The following cochlear passages contain perilymph:
(1) scala media (2) scala tympani (3) cochlear duct (4) scala vestibuli
15. The following cochlear passages contain endolymph:
(1) scala media (2) scala tympani (3) tunnel of Corti (4) scala vestibuli
16. The following statements regarding the spiral lamina are true:
(1) is a lateral projection of the modiolus (2) contains the spiral ganglion (3) its thickened
periosteum forms the spiral limbus (4) has the upper and the lower lips
17. The spiral organ of Corti consists of the following cells:
(1) phalangeal cells (2) pillar cells (3) hair cells (4) neurons
18. The following statements regarding the phalangeal cells of the spiral organ are
true:
(1) rest on the basement membrane (2) possess phalangeal processes (3) are supporting
cells (4) have cup-like depressions for hair cells
19. The tunnel of Corti contains:
(1) perilymph (2) endolymph (3) keratin-like fibrils (4) dendrites of sensory neurons
20. The following statements regarding the tectorial membrane are true:
(1) consists of glycoprotein-rich material (2) projects away from the spiral limbus (3) covers
the hair cell tips (4) contains afferent nervous fibres
21. The maculae of the vestibular apparatus are located in:
(1) saccule (2) ampullae of semicircular canals (3) utricle (4) cochlea
22. The cristae of the vestibular apparatus are located in:
(1) saccule (2) utricle (3) cochlea (4) ampullae of semicircular canals
23. The movements of the following structures stimulate the vestibular
neuroepithelial cells:
(1) otoliths (2) cupula (3) otolithic membrane (4) tympanic membrane
24. The taste buds are located on the lateral surface of following lingual papillae:
(1) fungiform (2) foliate (3) circumvallate (4) filiform
25. The following statements regarding the taste buds are true:
(1) consist of supporting, neuroepithelial, and basal cells (2) contain taste pits (3) their
taste pores open into the interpapillar space (4) contains neurons
26. The following statements regarding the basal cells of the taste buds are true:
(1) are stem cells (2) give rise to supporting cells (3) give rise to neuroepithelial cells (4)
are neurons
11. CARDIOVASCULAR SYSTEM
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the elastic type arteries is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– their tunica intima is relatively thick, contains smooth muscle cells and elastic fibres;
B
– they are the largest-diameter arteries; C – blood pressure in these arteries is the least;
D
– their internal and external membranes are not conspicuous; E – elastic fenestrated
membranes are predominate in their tunica media.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the arterioles is true, EXCEPT:
A
– the internal elastic membrane may or may not be present in their tunica intima; B –
blood pressure in them is the highest in the arterial bed; C
– their tunica media has one or
two smooth muscle layers; D
– their smooth muscles form precapillary sphincters; E – they
control blood flow to the capillary bed.
3. The microcirculatory bed includes the following vessels, EXCEPT:
A
– arterioles; B – venules; C – capillaries; D – arteriovenous anastomoses (shunts); E –
lymphatic ducts.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the capillaries is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contain smooth muscle cells; B – consist of endothelial cells on the basal lamina; C –
their diameter is often smaller than that of erythrocytes; D
– possess selective
permeability; E
– histamine increases capillary permeability.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the continuous capillaries is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are endothelial tubules; B – typically found in endocrine glands; C – their endothelial
cells are joined by tight junctions; D
– their endothelial cells abound in pinocytotic vesicles;
E
– pericytes enclosed by the endothelial basal membrane may be found.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the postcapillary venules is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consist of endothelium on the basal lamina; B – contain pericytes; C – contain smooth
muscle cells; D
– are the sites of histamine action; E – leukocytes emigrate through their
wall into tissues (especially in inflammation and allergic reactions).
7. Each of the following statements concerning the vein structure is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is devoid of the internal and external elastic membranes; B – contains few elastic
elements; C
– blood vessels supply all its layers; D – its tunica media is thicker than the
tunica adventitia; E
– its tunica intima may possess valves.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the endocardium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– includes endothelium and subendothelial layer; B – contains middle layer of elastic
fibres and smooth muscle cells; C
– is supplied by diffusion; D – possesses blood vessels;
E
– has a deeper layer of connective tissue.
9. The myocardium consists of the following structures, EXCEPT:
A
– typical cardiac muscle cells; B – atypical cardiac muscle cells of the impulse-
conducting system; C
– abundance of adipose tissue; D – blood vessels; E – connective
tissue.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the epicardium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– it is the internal sheet of the pericardium; B – consists of mesothelial cells and
underlying connective tissue; C
– contains blood vessels and nerves; D – is supplied by
diffusion; E
– contains adipose tissue.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the heart valves is true, EXCEPT:
A
– have the central core of fibrous tissue; B – their surfaces are covered with
endothelium; C
– fibrous cords extend from the valve free edge to papillary muscles; D –
prevent blood backflow; E
– possess their own blood vessels.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the impulse-conducting system is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of atypical cardiac muscle cells; B – contains neurons; C – includes the
sinoatrial and atrioventricular nodes; D
– includes the bundle of His and Purkinje fibres; E
– generates and conducts impulses for cardiac muscle.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the lymphatic capillaries is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– have a continuous basal lamina; B – are formed by endothelial cells; C – drain most
tissues; D
– are “blind-ending tubules”; E – anchoring filaments extend between the
lymphatic endothelium and the perivascular collagen.
14. Each of the following statements concerning large lymphatic vessels is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are similar to venules in structure, but have a larger lumen; B – lack valves; C – return
lymph to the venous system; D
– their thin walls make it difficult to distinguish tunics; E –
lymph moves due to compression of lymph vessels by adjacent skeletal muscles.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
15. The vascular tunica intima consists of:
(1) endothelium on the basal lamina (2) subendothelial connective tissue layer (3) internal
elastic membrane (mainly in arteries) (4) circular layer of smooth muscle cells
16. The following statements regarding the vascular tunica media are true:
(1) consists of circular layers of smooth muscle cells (2) contains a variable amount of
elastin (mainly in arteries) (3) contains reticular fibres and proteoglycans secreted by
smooth muscle cells (4) is relatively thick in arteries and relatively thin in veins
17. The following statements regarding the vascular tunica adventitia are true:
(1) consists of loose connective tissue (2) contains blood vessels and nerves (3) is
separated from the tunica media by the external elastic membrane (mainly in arteries) (4)
is relatively thin in arteries and relatively thick in veins
18. The following statements regarding the artery structure are true:
(1) the tunica media is its thickest layer (2) possesses the internal and external elastic
membranes (except elastic type arteries) (3) its tunica media abounds in elastic elements
(fibres or membranes) (4) blood vessels supply only its outer portion, the inner portion is
supplied by diffusion
19. The arteries are classified into the following types:
(1) muscular (2) muscular-elastic (3) elastic (4) without muscles
20. The following statements regarding the muscular-elastic arteries are true:
(1) are branches of elastic arteries (2) blood pressure is higher in these arteries than in
aorta (3) their tunica media contains approximately an equal amount of smooth muscle
cells and elastic elements (4) blood vessels supply three layers of their wall
21. The following statements regarding the muscular arteries are true:
(1) blood pressure is the highest in these arteries (2) they are small-calibre arteries (3)
they lack the internal and external elastic membranes (4) smooth muscle cells are
predominant in their tunica media
22. In embryogenesis the blood vessels are derived from:
(1) endoderm (2) ectoderm (3) mesoderm (4) mesenchyme
23. The capillaries are divided into the following types:
(1) continuous (2) fenestrated (3) discontinuous (4) mixed
24. The following statements regarding the fenestrated type capillaries are true:
(1) are characterized by fenestrations (2) their fenestrations provide channels in the
capillary wall (3) have pinocytotic vesicles (4) typically found in muscles
25. The following statements regarding the discontinuous type capillaries are true:
(1) typically found in the liver, spleen, and bone marrow (2) are characterized by multiple
pores in endothelial cells and between them (3) are characterized by the absence of the
basal lamina under pores (4) pericytes may be found in their wall
26. The veins are classified into the following types:
(1) elastic (2) muscular (3) muscular-elastic (4) muscle-free or fibre type
27. The muscular veins are subdivided into the following groups:
(1) with a small muscle content (2) with a moderate muscle content (3) with a large muscle
content (4) muscular-elastic
28. The following statements regarding the fibre type veins are true:
(1) they usually convey blood towards gravity (2) their wall consists of the tunica intima
and the tunica adventitia (3) their wall is devoid of the tunica media (4) they contain
muscles in the tunica adventitia
29. The smooth muscle cells are located in the veins with a large muscle content:
(1) circularly in the tunica media (2) longitudinally in the tunica intima (separate cells) (3)
longitudinally in the tunica adventitia (bundles of cells) (4) longitudinally in the tunica media
30. The heart embryonic origins are as follows:
(1) endoderm (2) mesoderm (3) ectoderm (4) mesenchyme
31. The following statements regarding the arteriovenous anastomoses are true:
(1) may be simple and complex (2) convey blood to venules bypassing the capillary bed
(3) regulate organ blood filling (4) serve in termoregulation at body surface
32. The following statements regarding the Purkinje fibres are true:
(1) contain few myofibrils (2) are rich in glycogen (3) are glycolytic (anaerobic) cells (4)
transmit excitation to typical cardiac muscle cells
12. HEMOPOIESIS. CENTRAL ORGANS OF HEMOPOIESIS
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. The first phase of hemopoiesis in fetal life occurs in:
A
– liver; B – spleen; C – bone marrow; D – “blood islands” in the wall of the yolk sac; E -
lymph nodes.
2. Each of the following statements concerning proerythroblasts is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from CFU-Er; B – give rise to basophilic erythroblasts; C – contain small
heterochromatic nuclei; D
– their cytoplasm is slightly basophilic due to free ribosomes; E
– are able to divide.
3. Each of the following statements concerning basophilic erythroblasts is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from normoblasts; B – give rise to polychromatophilic erythroblasts; C –
their cytoplasm reveals strong basophilia due to numerous ribosomes; D
– are able to
divide; E
– their nuclei are smaller and more heterochromatic compared to the previous
form.
4. Each of the following statements concerning polychromatophilic erythroblasts is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from basophilic erythroblasts; B – give rise to normoblasts; C – their nuclei
are smaller and heterochromatic compared to the previous form; D
– their cytoplasm
displays both eosinophilia and basophilia; E
– are not able to divide.
5. Each of the following statements concerning normoblasts is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from polychromatophilic erythroblasts; B – give rise to basophilic
erythroblasts; C
– their cytoplasm stains eosinophilic due to a large amount of hemoglobin;
D
– lose nuclei by extruding them from the cells; E – are not able to divide.
6. The following events take place in erythropoiesis, EXCEPT:
A
– changing of cell shape for biconcave; B – reducing of cell dimensions; C –
accumulating of hemoglobin; D
– changing of cytoplasm eosinophilia for basophilia; E –
reducing and extruding of nuclei.
7. Each of the following statements concerning promyelocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from myeloblasts; B – give rise to myelocytes; C – their cytoplasm is light
blue and contains primary granules; D
– have large spherical nuclei; E – are not able to
divide
8. Each of the following statements concerning myelocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from promyelocytes; B – give rise to metamyelocytes; C – begin to form
specific (secondary) granules; D
– recognition of neutrophil, eosinophil, and basophil
series is not possible at this stage; E
– are able to divide.
9. Each of the following statements concerning metamyelocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from myelocytes; B – give rise to promyelocytes; C – their nuclei are
heterochromatic and kidney-shaped; D
– specific granules outnumber primary granules in
their cytoplasm; E
– are not able to divide.
10. Each of the following statements concerning megakaryocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are derived from promegakaryocytes; B – give rise to platelets; C – are giant cells; D –
have complex multilobulated polyploid nuclei; E
– are located far from the marrow blood
sinuses.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the thymus is true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of lobules; B – its lobule stroma is composed of epithelial tissue; C – contains
lymphatic nodules; D
– provides antigen-independent development of T lymphocytes; E –
undergoes age-related involution and is replaced by adipose tissue.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the thymic lobule is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its stromal epithelioreticular cells produce thymosin; B – its cortex contains numerous
small lymphocytes; C
– its medulla contains mostly large lymphocytes; D – Hassall’s
corpuscles are located in its medulla; E
– contains pluripotentional stem hemopoietic cells.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The following statements regarding the hemopoietic stem cells are true:
(1) are pluripotential colony-forming units (2) in adults are located and function in the red
bone marrow (3) presumably look similar to small lymphocytes (4) are morphologically
indistinguishable from oligopotential and unipotential stem cells
14. The following statements regarding the reticulocytes are true:
(1) their cytoplasm contains some ribosomes that look like a reticular network (2)
constitute about 1% of red blood cells in circulation (3) increase in number in cases of
bleeding and hemolysis (4) possess small heterochromatic nuclei
15. The stages of the monocyte development are as follows:
(1) monoblasts (2) promonocytes (3) monocytes (4) tissue macrophages
16. The stages of the platelet development are as follows:
(1) CFU-Mg (2) promegakaryocytes (3) megakaryocyte (4) megakaryoblasts
17. The stages of lymphopoiesis in the central organs are as follows:
(1) CFU-Ly (2) lymphoblasts (3) prolymphocytes (4) immunocompetent lymphocytes
18. Antigen-independent proliferation and differentiation of T lymphocytes proceed
in the following organs:
(1) liver (2) red bone marrow (3) spleen (4) thymus
19. Antigen-independent proliferation and differentiation of B lymphocytes take
place in the following organs:
(1) spleen (2) appendix (3) liver (4) red bone marrow
20. The following statements regarding the red bone marrow are true:
(1) is the central organ of hemopoiesis (2) contains blood sinuses (3) contains few adipose
cells (4) its stroma consists of epithelial tissue
21. The following statements regarding the red marrow stroma are true:
(1) consists of reticular cells and reticular fibres (2) contains hemopoietic cells (3) provides
support to hemopoietic cells (4) produces substances controlling differentiation of
hemopoietic cells
22. The following statements regarding the yellow bone marrow are true:
(1) mostly consists of adipose cells (2) does not retain hemopoietic potentials (3) replaces
red bone marrow (4) is not capable of transformation to the red marrow after severe
bleeding
23. The following statements regarding the thymus are true:
(1) its blood-thymus barrier is impermeable to macromolecules (2) contains numerous
macrophages for phagocytosis of degenerating lymphocytes (3) their T lymphocytes
pro
grammed against “self” antigens are destroyed (4) provides antigen-dependent
differentiation of T lymphocytes
24. The blood-thymus barrier is made up of the following components:
(1) capillary endothelium on the basal lamina (2) perivascular connective tissue spaces
with numerous macrophages (3) epithelioreticular cells on their basal membrane (4)
adipose cells
13. PERIPHERAL ORGANS OF HEMOPOIESIS AND IMMUNOGENESIS
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the lymph node cortex is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contains lymphatic nodules, each of which is a B-dependent zone; B – its deep part,
paracortex, is a T-dependent zone; C
– lacks lymphatic sinuses; D – its lymphatic nodules
are primary, if they contain small lymphocytes; E
– its lymphatic nodules are secondary, if
they possess the germinal centres.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the lymph node sinuses is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are narrow spaces between connective tissue (capsule, trabeculae) and lymphatic
tissue (nodules, cords); B
– are subcapsular, peritrabecular, and medullary; C – lack their
own lining; D
– contain reticular cells, fibres, and macrophages; E – drain and filter lymph.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the spleen white pulp is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consists of periarterial lymphatic sheathes and lymphatic nodules; B – contains the
central artery; C
– its lymphatic nodules are a B-dependent zone; D – its periarterial
sheathes are a T-dependent zone; E
– contains splenic sinuses.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the spleen red pulp is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its stroma consists of reticular tissue; B – contains the central artery; C – includes red
blood cells, granulocytes, lymphocytes, numerous plasma cells, and macrophages; D
–
contains splenic sinuses; E
– erythrocytes are destroyed and phagocytosed by
macrophages here.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the diffuse lymphatic tissue and
lymphatic nodules is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are located in the tunica mucosa of the alimentary canal, respiratory passages, urinary
passages, and genital tract; B
– are unencapsulated concentrations of lymphocytes; C –
filter lymph and extract antigens from it; D
– their lymphocytes after an encounter with
antigen migrate to regional lymph nodes where they undergo proliferation and
differentiation; E
– cells returning to the lamina propria are effector lymphocytes.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the palatine tonsil is true, EXCEPT:
A
– has crypts containing cellular debris; B – its stratified squamous epithelium is not
infiltrated by lymphocytes; C
– its connective tissue is infiltrated by lymphocytes; D –
contains lymphatic nodules distributed along the crypts; E
– possesses thin connective
tissue capsule.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the germinal centre of lymphatic
nodules is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a morphological indication of the lymphatic tissue response to antigens; B – contains
large lymphocytes (lymphoblasts); C
– reveals blast mitotic divisions; D – contains
differentiating plasma cells; E
– includes macrophages.
8. Each of the following statements concerning humoral immunity is true, EXCEPT:
A
– B lymphocytes are responsible for this type of immunity; B – macrophages and T
lymphocytes do not take part in humoral immunity; C
– activated B lymphocytes are
transformed into immunoblasts; D
– immunoblasts differentiate into plasma cells; E –
plasma cells synthesize specific antibodies.
9. Each of the following statements concerning cell-mediated immunity is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– T lymphocytes are responsible for this type of immunity; B – activated T lymphocytes
are transformed into lymphoblasts; C
– lymphoblasts proliferate and differentiate into
effector cells; D
– memory cells are not produced in the differentiation of T lymphoblasts; E
– cytotoxic T lymphocytes direct their killer activity against virus-effected cells, cancer
cells, cells with mutations, and graft cells.
10. Antigen-dependent differentiation of T lymphocytes results in the formation of
the following cell types, EXCEPT:
A
– plasma cells producing specific antibodies; B – T killer cells, primary effectors of cell-
mediated immunity; C
– T helper cells aiding in B cell differentiation; D –T suppressor cells
suppressing B cell differentiation; E
– T memory cells able to respond more quickly to the
next encounter with the same antigen.
11. Each of the following statements concerning T helper cells is true, EXCEPT:
A
– arise from T lymphoblasts; B – are able to recognize foreign antigens presented by
macrophages; C
– secrete interleukins; D – secrete antibodies; E – stimulate B cell
differentiation.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
12. Antigen-dependent differentiation of lymphocytes takes place in the following
organs:
(1) spleen (2) tonsils (3) lymph nodes (4) appendix
13. The following statements regarding the lymph nodes are true:
(1) are located along the lymphatic vessel pathway (2) their stroma consists of
epithelioreticular cells (3) filtrate lymph (4) provide antigen-independent development of
lymphocytes
14. The following statements regarding the lymph node medulla are true:
(1) contains medullary sinuses (2) contains medullary cords (3) its cords possess
numerous plasma cells, macrophages, and lymphocytes (4) is a T-dependent zone
15. In the nasal and oropharyngeal infections, the cervical lymph nodes undergo
enlargement due to:
(1) edema (2) lymph volume increase (3) inflammation of lymph nodes (4) lymphocyte
proliferation in response to antigens
16. The following statements regarding the spleen are true:
(1) its capsule and trabeculae contain smooth muscle cells (2) is able to accumulate large
volumes of red blood cells (3) contraction of its capsule and trabeculae returns stored red
blood cells into circulation (4) has the cortex and the medulla
17. The following statements regarding the marginal zone of the spleen are true:
(1) is a region between the red pulp and the white pulp (2) contains T and B lymphocytes
(3) contains small sinuses located in the periphery of lymph nodules (4) contains the
central artery
18. The following statements regarding the splenic circulation are true:
(1) splenic arterioles continue into capillaries of two types: open and closed (2) closed
capillaries continue into venous sinuses (3) open capillaries empty directly into the red
pulp (4) the red pulp filtrates blood and extracts antigens from it
19. The Immune functions of the spleen are as follows:
(1) antigen removal from blood (2) antigen-dependent differentiation of lymphocytes (3)
antibody production (4) blood storage
20. The hematopoietic functions of the spleen are as follows:
(1) blood cell formation during fetal life (2) destruction of aged, abnormal erythrocytes and
platelets (3) blood storage (4) antibody production
21. The macrophage participation in the immune response consists in:
(1) secretion of lymphokins stimulating lymphocyte proliferation (2) presentation of
antigens to lymphocytes (3) elimination of the antigen-antibody complex (4) antibody
production
22. The immediate performers in the graft rejection reaction are the following cells:
(1) T suppressor cells (2) T helper cells (3) T memory cells (4) T killer cells
14. ENDOCRINE ORGANS
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. The specific hormone interaction with target cells is provided by:
A
– hormone chemical compound; B – tissue belonging of target cells; C – target cell
origination; D
– existence of receptors for hormone on the target cell plasma membrane; E
– origination of endocrine gland producing hormone.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the adenohypophysis is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consists of glandular epithelial tissue; B – originates from the neural crest; C – its
endocrine cells respond to signals from the hypothalamus; D
– contains fenestrated
secondary plexus capillaries; E
– is composed of the pars distalis, pars intermedia, and
pars tubularis.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the hypophyseal portal system is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– its capillaries are narrow and continuous; B – its secondary capillary plexus arises
from the portal veins and supplies the adenohypophysis; C
– hypophyseal veins run from
the median eminence along the pars tubularis into the pars distalis; D
– its primary
capillary plexus is located in the median eminence; E
– its primary capillary plexus arises
from the superior hypophyseal arteries and drains into the portal veins.
4. The pars distalis of the adenohypophysis contains the following endocrine cells,
EXCEPT:
A
– acidophils: somatotropes and lactotropes; B – chromophobes; C – basophils:
thyrotropes and gonadotropes; D
– oxytocin-secreting; E – basophils: adrenocorticotropes.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the physiological effect of
adenohypophysial hormones is true, EXCEPT:
A
– GH stimulates long bone growth; B – PR initiates and maintains milk secretion; C –
ACTH controls adrenal medulla secretion; D
– TSH regulates thyroid hormone secretion; E
– FSH and LH regulate gonadal functions.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the neurons of the hypothalamic
supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei is true, EXCEPT:
A
– their cell bodies reside in the hypothalamus; B – their axons convey neurosecretory
products to the secondary plexus of the hypophyseal portal system; C
– their axons pass
via the infundibular stalk to the neurohypophysis; D
– their axons terminate on fenestrated
capillaries of the pars nervosa; E
– they secrete oxytocin and ADH.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the pineal gland is true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of pinealocytes and glial cells; B – produces serotonin (usually during the day)
and melatonin (usually at night); C
– contains calcified concretions called the brain sand; D
– is an epithelial endocrine gland; E – modulates reproductive functions depending on the
day length.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the thyroid gland follicles is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are surrounded by continuous capillaries; B – are filled with gel-like mass called the
colloid; C
– their wall is made up of follicular and parafollicular cells; D – the colloid
contains thyroglobulin, the inactive storage form of thyroid hormones; E
– are the thyroid
gland functional units.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the thyroid gland follicular cells is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– their basal portions rest on the basal membrane, their apical portions are in contact
with the colloid; B
– their cytoplasm contains colloid-resorbing droplets; C – transport
iodide from blood into their cytoplasm and into the colloid; D
– arise from the neural crest;
E
– secrete thyroxine (T
4
) and triiodothyronine (T
3
).
10. Each of the following statements concerning the process of T
4
and T
3
secretion
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– follicular cells synthesize and secrete thyroglobulin into the follicular lumen; B –
thyroglobulin is an active form of the thyroid hormones; C
– iodination of thyroglobulin
occurs in the colloid near the apical cell surfaces; D
– hormones are liberated from the
storage form by resorption; E
– hormones are released into fenestrated capillaries.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the thyroid parafollicular cells is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– arise from the neural crest; B – occur in the follicular wall or in the interfollicular
spaces; C
– their basal portions rest on the basal lamina; D – their apical portions are in
contact with the colloid; E
– their cytoplasm contains numerous granules with calcitonin.
12. Each of the following statements concerning calcitonin is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a physiological antagonist to parathyroid; B – lowers the blood calcium level; C –
suppresses bone resorption and increases bone calcification; D
– its secretion is regulated
directly by the blood calcium level; E
– its release is controlled by the pituitary gland.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the adrenal medulla is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– its secretion is modulated by ACTH; B – originates from the neural crest; C – secretes
norepinephrine and epinephrine; D
– its chromaffin cells are modified neurons; E –
contains sinusoidal blood capillaries and large veins.
14. Each of the following statements concerning the adrenal cortex is true, EXCEPT:
A
– secretes steroid hormones; B – consists of epithelial cells; C – arises from the
mesoderm; D
– secretes catecholamines; E – is divided into three zones: glomerulosa,
fasciculata, and reticularis.
15. Each of the following statements concerning the adrenal cortex zona
glomerulosa is true, EXCEPT:
A
– lies beneath the capsule; B – its cells are arranged in the ovoid clusters surrounded by
fenestrated capillaries; C
– its cells secrete mineralocorticoids, primarily aldosterone; D –
is controlled by ACTH; E
– is under feedback control of the renin-angiotensin system.
16. Each of the following statements concerning the adrenal cortex zona fasciculata
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its cells are arranged in the straight cords; B – contains narrow continuous capillaries;
C
– its cell cytoplasm is rich in lipid droplets containing steroid hormone precursors; D –
secretes glucocorticoids, primarily cortisol; E
– is controlled by ACTH.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
17. The following statements regarding the adenohypophysial hormones are true:
(1) are small proteins or glycoproteins (2) are tropic hormones modulating other endocrine
gland activity (3) their secretion is controlled by releasing and inhibitory factors from the
hypothalamus (4) are accumulated in the Herring bodies
18. The following statements regarding the functional significance of the
hypophyseal portal system are true:
(1) hypothalamic regulating factors are released into the primary capillary plexus (2)
hypophyseal portal veins carry these factors to the adenohypophysis (3) releasing factors
leave the blood and enter the adenohypophysis through the secondary capillary plexus (4)
adenohypophysial tropic hormones are released into the secondary capillary plexus
19. The following statements regarding the pars intermedia of the adenohypophysis
are true:
(1) contains acidophils: somatotropes and lactotropes (2) its endocrine cells surround the
colloid-filled cysts (3) hypophyseal portal veins run through it to the pars distalis (4) its
endocrine cells presumably secrete lipotropins and the melanocyte-stimulating hormone
20. The following statements regarding the adenohypophysotropic factors are true:
(1) are synthesized by the neurons of the hypothalamic arcuate, ventromedial, and
dorsomedial nuclei (2) are releasing and inhibitory factors (3) their synthesis and discharge
are controlled by negative feedback (4) are accumulated and released into the
bloodstream in the pars nervosa
21. The following statements regarding the neurohypophysis are true:
(1) originates from nervous tissue (2) contains nonmyelinated axons, pituicytes,
fenestrated capillaries, and the Herring bodies (3) store and release into the blood
secretory product from the hypothalamus (4) is a typical endocrine gland
22. The following statements regarding the Herring bodies are true:
(1) are dilated terminal portions of hypothalamic neuron axons (2) accumulate granules of
oxytocin and ADH (3) are in contact with fenestrated capillaries (4) are located in the pars
distalis of the adenohypophysis
23.
The
following
statements
regarding
the
functional
effect
of
the
neurohypophysial hormones are true:
(1) oxytocin promotes contraction of the uterine muscle cells (2) physiological ADH doses
increase blood pressure by contraction of the arteriolar muscle cells (3) oxytocin stimulates
contraction of the breast myoepithelial cells providing milk ejection (4) nonphysiological
ADH doses are responsible for water resorption by the kidney nephron tubular cells
24. The following statements regarding the pituicytes are true:
(1) are principal cells of the neurohypophysis (2) store and release the hypothalamic
hormones (3) are glia-like cells similar to astrocytes (4) are endocrine cells
25. The morphological features of the thyroid gland hyperfunction are as follows:
(1) follicular cells become columnar (2) follicles enlarge in diameter (3) the colloid is more
vacuolated and resorbed rapidly (4) the colloid amount increases
26. The morphological features of the thyroid gland hypofunction are as follows:
(1) follicular cells become flat (2) follicles enlarge in diameter (3) the colloid is less
vacuolated due to the inhibition of its resorption (4) the colloid amount is reduced
27. The following statements regarding the thyroid follicular cell hormones are true:
(1) are thyroxine and triiodothyronine (2) regulate cell and tissue metabolism (3) their
release is controlled by the feedback system (4) their secretion is stimulated by TSH
28. The following statements regarding the parathyroid glands are true:
(1) contain principal and oxyphil endocrine cells (2) their endocrine cell cords are
surrounded by fenestrated blood capillaries (3) produce parathyroid hormone (4) are
adenohypophysis-dependent glands
29. The following statements regarding the parathyroid hormone (PTH) are true:
(1) increases the blood calcium level (2) its secretion is regulated by serum calcium levels
(3) stimulates bone resorption by osteoclasts (4) reduces the kidney exretion and
increases the intestinal absorption of calcium
30. The following statements regarding the adrenal medulla chromaffin cells are
true:
(1) are equivalent to postganglionic neurons (2) sympathetic nerve fibres are in contact
with them (3) release their hormones in response to nerve impulses (4) glucocorticoids
induce them to convert norepinephrine to epinephrine
31. The catecholamines produce the following effects:
(1) increase in blood pressure (2) dilation of the coronary blood vessels (3) increase in the
heart rate (4) increase in the rate and depth of breathing
32. The following statements regarding the adrenal cortex zona reticularis are true:
(1) its cells are arranged in anastomosing cords (2) its secretion is modulated by ACTH (3)
secretes weak androgens (4) arises from the neural crest
33. The morphological features of steroid-secreting cells are the presence in their
cytoplasm of:
(1) well-developed sER (2) scantily-developed Golgi complex (3) numerous mitochondria
with tubular cristae (4) few lipid droplets
34. The following statements regarding the physiological effects of the adrenal
cortex hormones are true:
(1) aldosterone acts on nephron tubules and stimulates sodium resorption (2)
glucocorticoids regulate gluconeogenesis and glycogenesis (3) glucocorticoids depress
the immune response and inflammatory reactions (4) mineralocorticoids regulate sodium
and potassium homeostasis and water balance
15. DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
– I
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the alimentary canal mucosa is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is a barrier separating the tract lumen from the body; B – secretes digestive enzymes,
hormones, mucus, and antibodies into the lumen; C
– selectively absorbs digested
products; D
– lacks diffuse lymphatic tissue and lymphatic nodules; E – may contain
glands.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the muscularis externa of the
alimentary
canal is true, EXCEPT:
A
– usually consists of three layers; B – its muscle contractions produce peristalsis; C –
the myenteric nerve plexus is present between muscle layers; D
– circular muscles form
sphincters along the tract; E
– its contraction moves the contents along the tract.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the structure of the oral cavity
organs is true, EXCEPT:
A
– mucosa is covered with stratified epithelium; B – epithelium is partially keratinized; C –
mucosa possesses the muscularis mucosae; D
– submucosa is absent at many sites; E –
the organs contain striated muscles.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the tooth is true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of three parts: the crown, neck, and root; B – enamel covers all the tooth
parts; C
– dentin is the principal tooth substance; D – the root is covered with cementum;
E
– contains the pulp chamber.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the tooth pulp is true, EXCEPT:
A
– is filled with connective tissue; B – contains blood vessels and nerves; C – the narrow
canal extends from the pulp outside; D
– the blood vessels and nerves enter and leave the
pulp through the tooth canal; E
– is lined with cementum.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the tooth development is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– the enamel organ cells induce odontoblast formation; B – odontoblasts arise from the
outer enamel epithelium; C
– odontoblasts produce dentin; D – ameloblasts arise from the
inner enamel epithelium; E
– ameloblasts deposit enamel on the dentinal surface.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the tooth development is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– odontoblasts produce predentin; B – predentin calcifies to become dentin; C – dentin
appears first, enamel and cementum are secreted later; D
– the dental pulp arises from the
enamel organ pulp; E
– cementum is secreted by cementocytes.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the myoepithelial cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are contractile cells; B – are located only in the salivary gland acini; C – possess
numerous processes; D
– lie between the basal lamina and epithelial cells; E – provide
secretion discharge towards ducts.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the intercalated ducts of the salivary
glands is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are lined with columnar cells possessing basal striations; B – secrete bicarbonate ions
into the acinar product; C
– absorb chloride ions from the acinar product; D – are most
prominent in serous salivary glands; E
– are short and difficult to identify in mucus salivary
glands.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the esophageal glands is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– esophageal glands proper occur in the submucosa; B – esophageal glands proper are
compound tubuloalveolar ones; C
– produce serous secretion; D – esophageal cardiac
glands occur in the mucosal lamina propria; E
– esophageal cardiac glands are present in
the proximal and terminal portions of the organ.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the esophageal muscularis externa
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– consists of two muscle layers; B – contains striated muscles in the upper third; C –
contains striated and smooth muscles in the middle third; D
– contains only smooth
muscles in the distal third; E
– lacks myenteric plexus.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
12. The mucosa of the alimentary canal consists of:
(1) lining epithelium (2) lamina propria from connective tissue (3) muscularis mucosae
from smooth muscles (4) muscularis mucosae from striated muscles
13. The following statements regarding the submucosa of the alimentary canal are
true:
(1) consists of connective tissue (2) contains blood vessels (3) contains nerve plexus (4)
may contain glands
14. The submucosa of the alimentary canal contains glands in the following organs:
(1) large intestine (2) esophagus (3) stomach (4) duodenum
15. The adventitia of the alimentary canal is composed of:
(1) connective tissue (2) mesothelium (3) blood vessels and nerves (4) striated muscles
16. The following statements regarding the serosa of the alimentary canal are true:
(1) is equivalent to the visceral peritoneum (2) includes connective tissue (3) is covered
with mesothelium (4) contains blood vessels and nerves
17. The following statements regarding the dorsal surface of the tongue are true:
(1) its mucosa forms papillae (2) its papillary epithelium contains taste buds (3) its
epithelium covering filiform papillae is keratinized (4) possesses the submucosa
18. The following statements regarding the lower surface of the tongue are true:
(1) its mucosa forms papillae (2) its epithelium is keratinized (3) its epithelium contains
taste buds (4) possesses the submucosa
19. The following statements regarding the serous acini of the salivary glands are
true:
(1) are spherical (2) serous cells are high (3) cell cytoplasm is basophilic due to numerous
ribosomes (4) their lumen is narrow and not conspicuous
20. The following statements regarding the mucous acini of the salivary glands are
true:
(1) are large and oval (2) mucous cells are deep basophilic due to numerous ribosomes
(3) mucous cells are light due to mucinogen granules (4) mucous cells are characterized
by basal striations
21. The distinctive feature of the mixed acini of the salivary gland is the presence of:
(1) myoepithelial cells (2) striated epithelial cells (3) stratified cuboidal epithelium (4)
serous demilunes
22. The following statements regarding the striated ducts of the salivary glands are
true:
(1) are lined with simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium (2) their cells have basal
striations (3) may be surrounded by small amount of connective tissue (4) are intralobular
ducts
23. The following statements regarding the basal striations of the striated duct
epithelial cells of the salivary glands are true:
(1) consists of numerous infoldings of the basal plasmalemma (2) contains longitudinally
oriented mitochondria (3) reabsorbs sodium from the secretion (4) adds potassium to the
secretion
16. DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
– II
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the gastric mucosa is true, EXCEPT:
A
– gastric pits form its microrelief; B – is covered with simple columnar mucous
epithelium; C
– possesses its own nerve plexus; D – its lamina propria contains simple
tubular glands; E
– its muscularis mucosae consists of three muscle layers.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the gastric fundic glands is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– occur in the submucosa; B – are simple tubular and slightly branched; C – secrete
gastric juice; D
– consist of five cell types; E – open into gastric pits.
3. The gastric fundic glands consist of the following cells, EXCEPT:
A
– chief cells; B – parietal cells; C – mucous neck cells; D – enteroendocrine cells; E –
goblet cells.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the parietal cells of the gastric
glands is true, EXCEPT:
A
– secrete hydrochloric acid; B – secrete pepsinogen; C – their activity is stimulated by
gastrin, histamine, and acetylcholine; D
– secrete an intrinsic factor; E – their intrinsic
factor is essential for vitamin B
12
absorption.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the pyloric region of the stomach is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– pyloric gastric pits are deep and occupy about half of the mucosa thickness; B –
pyloric glands are tubular branched; C
– mucous cells are predominant in pyloric glands; D
– pyloric glands contain parietal cells; E – its muscularis externa is very thick.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the undifferentiated cells of the
gastric glands is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are located mainly in the neck region of the glands; B – are absent in the pyloric
glands; C
– give rise to all glandular cell types; D – serve for renewal of gastric surface
epithelium; E
– their descendants migrate upwards along the pit and are shed at the
luminal surface.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the intestinal villus is true, EXCEPT:
A
– its core consists of connective tissue; B – contains fenestrated sinusoidal blood
capillaries; C
– contains a blind-ending lymphatic capillary called the lacteal; D – smooth
muscle cells derived from muscularis mucosae extend to the villus and accompany the
lacteal; E
– lacks the covering epithelium.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the enterocytes of the small
intestine epithelium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are tall columnar; B – lack microvilli; C – are specialized for absorption and transport of
substances from the gut lumen to circulation; D
– enterocyte junctions establish a barrier
between the lumen and the intercellular compartment; E
– produce enzymes needed for
terminal digestion and absorption.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the lipid absorption in the small
intestine is true, EXCEPT:
A
– enterocytes absorb fatty acids and glycerol from the lumen; B – enterocytes
resynthesize neutral fat; C
– neutral fat is transported into the lacteal; D – neutral fat is
transported into the blood capillaries; E
– contractions of the villus muscle cells drive away
chyle from the lacteal.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the Paneth cells of the small
intestine mucosa is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are located in villus epithelium; B – have large acidophilic apical granules; C – their
granules contain the antibacterial enzyme lysozyme; D
– their lysozyme digests cell walls
of certain bacteria; E
– take part in regulation of normal intestinal bacterial flora.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the renewal of the intestinal
epithelium is true, EXCEPT:
A
– all mature cells arise from the common stem (intermediate) cells; B – intermediate
cells are located in the lower half of crypts; C
– epithelial cells, except Paneth cells,
migrate from crypts onto villi; D
– Paneth cells are stem cells for intestinal epithelium; E –
mature cells are shed at tops of villi.
12. The distinctive feature of the duodenum is the presence of:
A
– lymphatic nodules; B – Pejer’s patches; C – mucosal villi; D – mucosal crypts; E –
submucosal glands.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
13. The gastric surface epithelium is called mucous, because:
(1) it is covered with thick mucus layer (2) gastric mucosa contains glands (3) gastric
glands possess mucous cells (4) each cell of this epithelium produces mucus
14. The following statements regarding the chief cells of the gastric glands are true:
(1) are located in the deepest parts of the fundic glands (2) are typical protein-secreting
cells (3) secrete pepsinogen, an inactive pepsin precursor (4) pepsinogen is converted to
pepsin after contact with the acid gastric juice
15. The following statements regarding the parietal cells of the gastric glands are
true:
(1) are located both in the neck and in the deeper gland parts (2) secrete hydrochloric acid
and the intrinsic factor (3) their cytoplasm stains intensely with eosin and other acid dyes
(4) have an extensive intracellular canalicular system
16. The gastric pits are:
(1) glands (2) crypts (3) villi (4) invaginations of the epithelium into the mucosal lamina
propria
17. The stomach functions are:
(1) chyme formation from the food bolus (2) passage of chyme into the duodenum (3)
protein digestion by pepsin (4) neutral fat absorption
18. The following statements regarding the enteroendocrine cells of the gastric
glands are true:
(1) they are more prevalent at the base of the glands (2) any cells do not reach the gland
lumen (3) some cells are in contact with the gland lumen (4) secrete hormones: gastrin,
secretin, etc.
19. The three smooth muscle layers of the gastric muscularis mucosae provide:
(1) gastric peristalsis (2) chyme passing into the duodenum (3) plication of the gastric
mucosa (4) outflow of gland secretion
20. The amplification of the small intestine mucosa surface for digestion and
absorption is provided by:
(1) plicae circulares (2) intestinal villi (3) microvilli of enterocytes (4) goblet cells
21. The following statements regarding the microvilli of the small intestine
epithelium are true:
(1) are small finger-like projections of the enterocyte apical plasma membrane (2) microvilli
appear as a “striated border” (3) provide major surface amplification for digestion and
absorption (4) the striated border is broken off over goblet cells
22. The following statements regarding the crypts of the small intestine mucosa are
true:
(1) are epithelial invaginations into the lamina propria (2) extend through the lamina
propria thickness up to the muscularis mucosae (3) are tubular structures (4) open onto
the luminal surface at villus bases
23. The following statements regarding the intestinal goblet cells are true:
(1) contain mucinogen granules in the apical distended portion (2) contain organelles and
nuclei in the narrow basal portion (3) produce mucus (4) are located only in intestinal villi
24. The epithelium of the small intestine villi contains the following cells:
(1) absorptive cells (2) goblet cells (3) endocrine cells (4) Paneth cells
25. The epithelium of the small intestine crypts contains the following cells:
(1) goblet cells (2) intermediate cells (3) Paneth cells (4) endocrine cells
26. The following statements regarding the gut-associated lymphatic tissue are true:
(1) lymphocytes infiltrate the mucosal epithelium and the lamina propria (2) lamina propria
contains lymphatic nodules and Pejer’s patches (3) epithelial M cells transport antigens
from the gut lumen to lymphocytes (4) antigens stimulate lymphocytes for immune
response
27. The following statements regarding the gut-associated lymphatic tissue are true:
(1) after antigen stimulation lymphocytes migrate to lymphatic nodes and differentiate into
plasma cells (2) plasma cells secrete IgA (3) enterocytes produce secretory glycoprotein
(4) the IgA-secretory glycoprotein complex passes into the lumen to inactivate antigens
17. DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
– III
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. Each of the following statements concerning the large intestine mucosa is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– contains numerous crypts; B – forms villi; C – its surface epithelium is the same as that
of the small intestine; D
– goblet cells are more numerous in its epithelium than in the
small intestine; E
– Paneth cells are normally absent in its crypts.
2. Each of the following statements concerning the liver circulation is true, EXCEPT:
A
– the liver receives blood from the portal vein and the hepatic artery; B – blood is mixed
in sinusoidal capillaries; C
– capillaries empty into central veins; D – central veins lead to
sublobular veins; E
– sublobular veins carry blood into the portal vein.
3. Each of the following statements concerning the classic hepatic lobule is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– is a hexagonal block of tissue; B – triads are at its angles; C – the sublobular vein is its
centre; D
– cell plates radiate from its centre to the periphery; E – sinusoids carry blood
from the periphery to the centre.
4. Each of the following statements concerning the hepatic sinusoids is true,
EXCEPT:
A
–arise from roundlobular arteries and roundlobular veins; B – perfuse cells with mixed
portal and arterial blood; C
– carry blood into the central veins; D – are the parts of hepatic
plates; E
– are surrounded by the space of Disse.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the portal area (the triad) is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– includes the central vein from the hepatic vein system; B – includes the interlobular
bile duct; C
– includes the interlobular vein from the portal vein system; D – includes the
interlobular artery from the hepatic artery system; E
– is surrounded by a small amount of
loose connective tissue.
6. The central vein and the sublobular vein of the liver have common features,
EXCEPT:
A
– belong to the hepatic vein system; B – have equal diameters and wall thickness; C –
are fibre type veins; D
– are solitary veins (travel alone); E – carry blood away from the
liver.
7. Each of the following statements concerning the hepatocytes is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are large polygonal cells; B – have one or two nuclei with well-developed nucleoli; C –
many of them are tetraploid; D
– are not capable of regeneration when the liver substance
is lost; E
– are arranged in plates.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the hepatocyte organelles is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– Golgi apparatus and lysosomes are absent; B – sER is involved in the degradation of
toxins and drugs, the synthesis of cholesterol and lipids; C
– peroxisomes are involved in
the breakdown of hydrogen peroxide and in alcohol metabolism; D
– rER is involved in
protein synthesis; E
– numerous mitochondria reflect the high energy requirement.
9. Each of the following statements concerning the bile canaliculi is true, EXCEPT:
A
– are intercellular gaps between the hepatocytes within the plates; B – drain bile into the
roundlobular and interlobular ducts; C
– have their own walls; D – hepatocyte microvilli
project into their lumen; E
– are isolated from the intercellular compartment by tight
junctions.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the perisinusoidal space of Disse
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– lies between the hepatocyte basal surfaces and the endothelial cell basal surfaces; B
– contains few reticular fibres; C – hepatocyte microvilli project into this space; D – fetal
hemopoiesis occurs here; E
– is the site of exchange between bile and hepatocytes.
11. Each of the following statements concerning the exocrine part of pancreas is
true, EXCEPT:
A
– is a compound branched acinar gland; B – produces pancreatic juice; C – its acini
secrete digestive enzymes: trypsin, amylase, and lipase; D
– its intercalated ducts secrete
fluid rich in sodium and bicarbonate; E
– its secretion enters the stomach.
12. Each of the following statements concerning the pancreatic acini is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– consist of pyramidal serous cells; B – basal portions of cells are acidophilic; C – the
cell basal cytoplasm abounds in rER; D
– apical portions of cells are acidophilic; E – the
cell apical cytoplasm contains zymogen (secretory) granules.
13. Each of the following statements concerning the pancreatic islets is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are scattered throughout the organ; B – are more numerous in the pancreas tail; C –
contain five types of endocrine cells; D
– lack blood capillaries; E – autonomic nerves are
in contact with endocrine cells and influence the hormone secretion.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
14. The extensive development of GALT in the large intestine wall reflects the
presence in its lumen of:
(1) mucus (2) a large number and a variety of microorganisms (3) chyle (4) noxious and
metabolic products
15. The principal functions of the large intestine are as follows:
(1) absorption of electrolytes and water (2) digestion of proteins and lipids (3) formation of
feces (4) absorption of amino acids, glycerol, and fatty acids
16. The following statements regarding the liver portal system are true:
(1) the portal vein carries venous blood from the digestive tube, the pancreas, and the
spleen (2) portal blood contains nutrients and noxious materials from the intestine (3)
portal blood contains products of the blood cell breakdown from the spleen (4) hepatocytes
convert toxic substances to harmless ones
17. The liver blood capillaries are:
(1) continuous (2) discontinuous (3) fenestrated (4) sinusoids
18. The hepatic sinusoid wall contains the following cells:
(1) endothelium (2) hepatocytes (3) stellate macrophages (4) centroacinar
19. The following statements regarding the portal hepatic lobule are true:
(1) is a triangular block of tissue (2) the triad is its centre (3) three central veins are at its
angles (4) is a diamond-shaped block of tissue
20. The following statements regarding the hepatic acinus are true:
(1) is a diamond-shaped block of tissue (2) its short axis is between two triads (3) its long
axis is between two central veins (4) the sublobular vein is its centre
21. The following statements regarding the Kupffer cells of the liver are true:
(1) are stellate macrophages (2) are located in the hepatic sinusoid wall (3) belong to the
mononuclear phagocytic system (4) arise from blood monocytes
22. The following statements regarding the hepatic plates are true:
(1) consist of two hepatocyte rows (2) bile canaliculi (capillaries) are between two cell rows
(3) are separated by the blood sinusoids (4) hepatocyte junctions isolate the bile canaliculi
23. The following statements regarding the lipocytes of the liver are true:
(1) are the storage site for vitamin A (2) resemble fibroblasts and secrete reticular fibres
(3) their broad basal portion faces the space of Disse (4) their narrow apical portion takes
part in bile production
24. The following statements regarding the hepatocyte polarization are true:
(1) the vascular hepatocyte pole faces the perisinusoidal space (2) the vascular pole is
involved in the exocrine function (3) the biliar hepatocyte pole faces the bile canaliculi (4)
the biliar pole is involved in the endocrine function
25. The endocrine hepatocyte function includes the secretion into the blood the
following
substances:
(1) albumins and nonimmune globulins (2) prothrombin and fibrinogen (3) cholesterol (4)
glucose released by hydrolysis of glycogen
26. The centroacinar cells from the pancreas belong to:
(1) acinus (2) interlobular duct (3) intralobular duct (4) intercalated duct
27. The following statements regarding the pancreatic duct system are true:
(1) is short (2) includes intercalated, intralobular, and interlobular ducts (3) the ducts are
lined with the cuboidal or columnar epithelium (4) the duct cells are not involved in the
secretion production
28. The following statements regarding the pancreatic endocrine cells are true:
(1) A cells secrete glucagon (2) B cells secrete insulin (3) D cells secrete somatostatin (4)
are adenohypophysis-dependent cells
29. The following statements regarding the pancreatic hormones are true:
(1) insulin influences the liver, skeletal muscles, and the adipose tissue (2) insulin
decreases the blood glucose level (3) glucagon raises the blood glucose level (4) the
blood glucose level regulates the release of both insulin and glucagon
18. RESPIRATORY SYSTEM
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
1. The functions of the respiratory conducting passages are as follows, EXCEPT:
A
– air filtration (removal of particles); B – air conduction; C – warming of inspired air; D –
gas exchange; E
– moistening of inspired air.
2. The tracheal epithelium consists of the following cells, EXCEPT:
A
– goblet cells (mucus secreting); B – chief cells (enzyme-secreting); C – brush cells
(receptor cells); D
– small granule cells (endocrine cells); E – basal cells (stem cells).
3. Each of the following statements concerning the tracheal cartilages is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are C-shaped structures; B – consist of hyaline cartilaginous tissue; C – are stacked
on one another to form supporting structure; D
– tracheal muscles bridge the free ends of
each cartilage; E
– lack perichondrium.
4. The structure of the large bronchi and the middle bronchi are similar, EXCEPT:
A
– the epithelium is simple pseudostratified ciliated; B – the submucosa contains glands;
C
– the cartilaginous layer consists of large hyaline plates; D – the mucosa possesses the
muscularis mucosae; E
– the adventitia is composed of connective tissue.
5. Each of the following statements concerning the small bronchus is true, EXCEPT:
A
– contains small plates of elastic cartilage; B – lacks the submucosa and glands; C –
consists of the mucosa and adventitia; D
– the mucosa forms large folds; E – possesses
the well-developed muscularis mucosae.
6. Each of the following statements concerning the terminal bronchiolar epithelium
is true, EXCEPT:
A
– transforms into simple cuboidal; B – ciliated cells decrease in number; C – goblet cells
are absent; D
– brush cells and granule cells are prevalent; E – Clara cells increase in
number.
7. Each of the following statements concerning type II alveolar cells is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– are cuboidal cells bulging into the air space; B – cover about 95% of the alveolar
surface; C
– are surfactant-secreting cells; D – their apical cytoplasm is filled with lamellar
bodies; E
– their lamellar bodies are rich in phospholipids.
8. Each of the following statements concerning the surfactant is true, EXCEPT:
A
– forms the phospholipid layer over the alveolar epithelium; B – reduces surface tension
at the air-epithelium interface; C
– appears from lamellar bodies of alveolar cells by
exocytosis; D
– its adequate secretion prevents alveolar collapse on exhalation; E – is
produced by type I pneumocytes.
9. On exhalation the alveoli diminish in size due to the presence in the alveolar
septum of:
A
– smooth muscle cells; B – collagen fibres; C – elastic fibres; D – fibroblasts; E –
pericytes.
10. Each of the following statements concerning the air-blood barrier is true,
EXCEPT:
A
– includes cells and cell products, across which gases diffuse between the alveolar air
and blood; B
– type II alveolar cells are the principal barrier cells; C – contains thick and
thin portions; D
– most gas exchange occurs across the thin barrier portion; E – connective
tissue cells and fibres widen the barrier and form its thick portion.
Directions
: one or more of the given statements or completions is/are correct. Choose the
answer: A
– if only 1,2, and 3 are correct; B – if only 1 and 3 are correct; C – if only 2 and
4 are correct; D
– if only 4 is correct; E – if all are correct.
11. The pulmonary acinus consists of:
(1) respiratory bronchioles (2) alveolar ducts (3) alveolar sacs (4) terminal bronchioles
12. The pulmonary internal bronchial tree consists of:
(1) large bronchi (2) middle bronchi (3) small bronchi (4) terminal bronchioles
13. The epithelium covering the mucosa of the air passages is:
(1) simple (2) pseudostratified (3) ciliated (4) striated
14. The following statements regarding the tracheal glands are true:
(1) are located in submucosa (2) contain mucus-secreting acini with serous demilunes (3)
deliver their product on the epithelial surface (4) contain parietal cells
15. As the bronchi become reduced in size their cartilages change in the following
way:
(1) cartilaginous rings are replaced by plates (2) cartilaginous plates become smaller and
fewer in number (3) hyaline cartilage is replaced by elastic cartilage (4) cartilages
disappear in small bronchi
16. The following statements regarding the Clara cells of the bronchiolar epithelium
are true:
(1) are nonciliated cells (2) have dome-shaped apical surface projection (3) display the
characteristics of protein-secreting cells (4) produce lipoproteins
17. In comparison with the terminal bronchiole wall, the respiratory bronchiole wall
contains:
(1) knob-like septa (2) the well-developed muscularis mucosae (3) submucosal glands (4)
alveoli
18. The distinctive feature of the alveolar ducts is the presence in their wall of:
(1) blood capillaries (2) alveoli (3) Clara cells (4) knob-like interalveolar septa
19. The following statements regarding type I alveolar cells (pneumocytes) are true:
(1) are extremely thin squamous cells (2) line most of the alveolar surface (3) gas
exchange occurs through these cells (4) are secretory cells
20. The components of the alveolar septum are as follows:
(1) blood capillaries (2) fibroblasts (3) macrophages (4) collagen and elastic fibres
21. The air-blood barrier includes:
(1) surfactant (2) type I alveolar cell and its basal lamina (3) capillary endothelial cell and
its basal lamina (4) connective tissue cells and fibres may be between two basal laminae
22. The following statements regarding the alveolar macrophages are true:
(1) remove particles from the air alveolar space (2) pass through the alveolar septum and
may then return into septal connective tissue (3) filled with accumulated material, they
remain in septal connective tissue (4) phagocytose infectious organisms such as tubercle
bacilli
19. INTEGUMENTARY SYSTEM
Directions
: each of the following statements contains five suggested completions. Choose
the one that is best in each case.
