Description
For all students who want to prepare for GAT/GRE Subject Type Test in the Parasitology part, this collection will cover a bunch of various questions which help students prepare for the test.
Study Set Content:
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1
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Discipline: Parasitology
Question Bank for GAT/GRE Subject Type Entry Test
(Parasitology)
A) Protozoology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
1)
On the basis of light and electron microscopic morphology, the protozoa are currently classified into
C
A. Four Phyla
B. Five Phyla
C. Six Phyla
D. Seven Phyla
2)
The most common form of asexual reproduction in protozoa is called as
A
A. Binary fission
B. Multiple fission
C. Both
D. None
3)
All protozoa required organic materials, which may be particulate or in solution. Such type of nutrition is called
A
A. Holozoic
B. Saprozoic
C. Both
D. None
4)
Protozoal parasites belonging to class Rhizopoda are characterized by having
D
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Cyst
D. Rhizopoda
5)
Amoebic dysentery in man and animals is caused by
C
A.
Entamoeba (E.) coli
B.
E. gingivalis
C.
E. histolytica
D. None
6)
Amoebic liver abscesses is the most common form of
A
A. Extraintestinal amaebiasis
B. Pulmonary amoebiasis
C. Cutaneous amoebiasis
D. All above
7)
Non-pathogenic species of genus Entamoeba occurs commonly in the human mouth is
B
A.
E. coli
B.
E. gingivalis
C.
E. hartmanni
D. None
8)
Protozoal parasites belonging to class Mastigophora are characterized by having
B
A. Cilia
B. Flagella
C. Cyst
D. Rhizopoda
9)
Protozoan parasites required hematin obtained from blood haemoglobin for aerobic respiration are called
B
A. Heteroxenous
B. Hemoflagellates
C. Both
D. None
10)
Metronidazole is the drug of choice for
A
A. Amoebiasis
B. Trypanosomiasis
C. Giardiasis
D. Trichomoniasis
11)
Trypomastigotes stage of Trypanosoma usually found in
B
A. Invertebrate host
B. Vertebrate host
C. Both
D. None
12)
Epimastigotes stage of Trypanosoma usually found in
B
A. Invertebrate host
B. Vertebrate host
C. Both
D. None
13)
Species of Trypanosomes develop in the anterior portion of the insect gut are called as
B
A. Stercoraria
B. Salivaria
C. Both
D. None
14)
Species of Trypanosomes develop in the posterior portion of the insect gut are called as
A
A. Stercoraria
B. Salivaria
C. Both
D. None
15)
In human beings, Trypanosoma brucei caused a disease called as
D
A. African Trypanosomiasis
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Both
D. Nagana
16)
In animals, Trypanosoma brucei caused a disease called as
D
A. African Trypanosomiasis
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Both
D. Nagana
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Discipline: Parasitology
A) Protozoology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
17)
Common name of Glossina species is
A
A. Tsetse fly
B. Horse fly
C. Both
D. None
18)
Biological vector of sleeping sickness is
A
A. Tsetse fly
B. Horse fly
C. House fly
D. None
19)
Swelling of the lymph nodes in African trypanosomiasis is called as
C
A. Winterbottom’s sign
B. Spring bottom sign
C. Both
D. None
20)
Trypanosoma equiperdum cause disease in equines called as
B
A. Nagana
B. Dourin
C. Surra
D. Muri
21)
Dourine in equines is transmitted by
D
A. Insect biting
B. Contaminated food
C. Both
D. Coitus
22)
Surra in animals is caused by
C
A.
Trypanosoma brucei
B.
Trypanosoma cruzi
C.
Trypanosoma evansi
D.
Trypanosoma equi
23)
The test used to detect raised levels of IgG and IgM in Trypanosoma evansi infected individuals is the
D
A. Thymol turbidity test
B. Card agglutination test
C. Mercuric chloride test
D. Formol gel test
24)
Trypanosoma species can be culture in vitro on a number of medium including
C
A. NNN mediu
B. Weinmann’s medium
C. Both
D. None
25)
Surra in animals can be diagnosed by
D
A. Thymol turbidity test
B. Card agglutination test
C. Mercuric chloride test
D. All above
26)
IgG and IgM levels raised in parasitic infections like
D
A. Malaria
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Schistosomiasis
D. All above
27)
Mal de Caderas is a fatal, usually chronic disease of equines caused by
A
A.
Trypanosoma equinum
B.
Trypanosoma congolense
C.
Trypanosoma evansi
D. All above
28)
Paragona in cattle and other animals is an acute fatal disease caused by
B
A.
Trypanosoma equinum
B.
Trypanosoma congolense
C. Both
D.
Trypanosoma evansi
29)
Souma, a disease of cattle, sheep, goat and horses, is caused by
D
A.
Trypanosoma evansi
B.
Trypanosoma equinum
C.
Trypanosoma congolense
D.
Trypanosome vivax
30)
Chaga’s disease can be diagnosed by
A
A. Xenodiagnosis
B. Thymol turbidity tes
C. Both
D. Mercuric chloride test
31)
American trypanosomiasis is transmitted by
A
A. Kissing bugs
B. Tsetse fly
C. Both
D. Horse fly
32)
Trypanosoma
melophagium is transmitted cyclically in the hindgut by the sheep ked called
B
A.
Stomoxys calcitran
B.
Molophagus ovinus
C. Both
D. None
33)
Which of the following species infects primates
A
A.
Trichomonad. suis
B.
P. hominis
C.
T. buttey
D.
Tt. rotunda
34)
Which of the following species does not inhabit the gastro-intestinal tract
C
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3
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59
Discipline: Parasitology
A) Protozoology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A.
T. gallinae
B.
C.
D.
35)
Which of the following species is transmitted sexually
C
A.
B.
C.
D.
36)
Which of the following drugs is effective against
Trichomonas vaginalis
C
A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
D. Pentamidine
37)
Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins is important in immunity to
T. vaginalis
?
A
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
38)
How long after conception does
Trichomonas foetus
cause abortions in cattle
B
A. One week
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 2-3 months
D. 4-6 months
39)
Tritrichomonas foetus
infections in cows usually self-heal within
C
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 3 months
40)
The infection rate of
Trichomonas vaginalis
in European women is
C
A. <0.1%
B. 1%
C. 1-5%
D. 5-20%
41)
Trichomonads are members of which phylum of protozoa
A
A.
B.
C.
D.
42)
Trichomonas gallinae
is transmitted by which of the following routes
A
A. Sexually
B. Oral
C. Aerosol
43)
How long after infection with
Trichomonas vaginalis
do clinical symptoms begin
D
A. <24 hours
B. 1-5 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 1-4 weeks
44)
How many families are ther in the order piroplasmida
D
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
45)
Which of the following species is responsible for East Coast Fever (ECF)
B
A.
B.
46)
Which of the following species is responsible for Texas Cattle Fever (TCF)
C
A.
B.
47)
Which of the following clinical signs is not normally present in babesia infections
C
A. Anaemia
D. Jaundice
48)
Which of the following stages is not present in both the life cycles of babesia and theileria
S
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. ray bodies
49)
Species of babesia termed "Large" are usually over what size
A
A. 1 micro meters
50)
Which of the following species has been reported to cause fatal infections in splenectomised humans
D
A.
B.
C.
51)
The level of erythrocyte parasitemia in babesia infected cattle is often
C
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4
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59
Discipline: Parasitology
A) Protozoology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
B. Between 2-5%
C.
D. Over 20%
52)
Which species of babesia infects dogs in northern Africa and the Far East
A
A.
B.
53)
Which of the following genera ticks is the primary vector for Theileria parva
B
A.
B.
C.
D.
54)
Giardia lamblia
is usually transmitted
A
A. by ingestion of contaminated food or water
B. by intermediayte host
C. Both
D. None
55)
Trophozoite of
Giardia lamblia have
A
A. 2 flagella
B. 4 flagella
C. 5 Flagella
D. 6 flagella
56)
Giardiasis can be diagnosed by
C
A. Duodenal biopsy
B. Enterotest
C. Both
D. None
57)
Giardia
trophozoites exhibits a characteristic
C
A. Tear-drop shape
B. Pear shape
C. Both
D. Flask shaped
58)
Giardia
trophozoites contains
B
A. One nucleus
B. Two nuclei
C. Three nuclei
D. Four nuclei
59)
A unique ultrastructural feature of
Giardia
is the adhesive disk also called as
D
A. Ventral disk
B. Sucking disk
C. Sucker
D. All above
60)
The incubation period of
giardia
infection in human being is generally
B
A. 3 days
B. -2 weeks
C. 4 weeks
D. 4-6 weeks
61)
Gastro-intestinal disturbances associated with giardiasis include
D
A. Flatulence
B. Bloating
C. Purple burbs
D. All above
62)
Stools associated with
Giardia
infection are generally described as loose, bulky, frothy and/or greasy with
A
A. The absence of blood or mucus
B. The presence of blood or mucus
C. The absence of mucus
D. The presence of mucus
63)
Drug of choice against Giardiasis is
A
A. Metronidazole
B. Paramomycin
C. Furazolidone
D. Quinacrin
64)
Pentatrichomonas hominis
C
A. Have a cystic stage
B. Have a trophozoite stage
C. Do not have a cystic stag
D. Do not have a cystic and trophozoite stage
65)
T. vaginalis
, infects
C
A. Men
B. Women
C. Both
D. None
66)
Trichomonasis is a
B
A. Non-sexually transmitted diseases
B. Sexually transmitted diseases
C. Food born disease
D. Contagious disease
67)
Trichomoniasis can be diagnosed by
D
A. Whiff test
B. Polymerase chain reaction
C. Wet mount
D. All above
68)
The use of latex or polyurethane condoms during vaginal intercourse can prevent the transmission of
A
A. Trichomoniasis
B. Amoebiasis
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5
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Discipline: Parasitology
A) Protozoology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
C. Trypanosomiasis
D. Giardiasis
69)
Drug of choice against Trichomoniasis is
A
A. Metronidazole
B. Tinidazole
C. Paramomycin
D. furazolidone
70)
Trichomonad infecting domestic animals have
C
A. 5 species
B. 10 species
C. 15species
D. 20 species
71)
Tritrichomonas foetus is
transmitted by
D
A. Canker
B. Frounce
C. Both
D. Trichomoniasis
72)
Tritrichomonas gallinae
in
pigeon
f cause a disease known as
D
A. Canker
B. Frounce
C. Both
D. Trichomoniasis
73)
Tritrichomonas gallinae
in falcons cause a disease known as
D
A. Canke
B. Frounce
C. Both
D. Trichomoniasis
74)
Balantidium coli
contains
A
A. Macro nucleus
B. Micro nucleus
C. Both
D. None
75)
Balantidium coli
usually lives as a
A
A. Non-pathogenic commensal and produces no symptoms B. Pathogenic commensal and produces no symptoms
C. Non-pathogenic commensal and produces disease
symptoms
D. Pathogenic commensal and produces disease symptoms
76)
Ciliates undergo
C
A. Asexual reproduction
B. Sexual reproduction
C. Both
D. None
77)
Drug of chice against
Balantidium coli infection is
A
A. Tetracycline
B. Metronidazole
C. Both
D. Iodoquinol
78)
Ichthyophthirius
cause a disease Ich or white spot in
A
A. Fish
B. Chickens
C. Birds
D. Pigeons
79)
Eimeria
and
Isosopora
are important genera of class
D
A.
Rhizopoda
B
. Mastigophora
C.
Cilliata
D
. Sporozoa
80)
Members of genera
Eimeria
and
Isospora
are often referred to as the
A
A. Coccidian
B. Malaria
C. Both
D. None
81)
Members of genus
Eimeria
has
A
A. Single host
B. Two host
C. Three host
D. Four host
82)
The sporulated oocyst of genus
Eimeria
contain
C
A. 2 sporocysts
B. 3 sporocyst
C. 4 sporocyst
D. 6 sporocyst
83)
Each sporocyst of genus
Eimeria
contains
A
A. 2 sporozoites
B. 4 sporozoites
C. 6 sporozoites
D. 8 sporozoites
84)
The life cycle of genus
Eimeria
consist of processes including
D
A. Schizogony
B. Gametogony
C. Sporogony
D. All above
85)
Coccidiosis is transmitted by
B
Page
6
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59
Discipline: Parasitology
A) Protozoology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A. Direct contact with droppings of infected birds
B. Indirect contact with droppings of infected birds
C. Both
D. None
86)
Coccidia shed in droppings are incapable of infecting other birds until certain maturation changes take place which is called
as
A
A. Sporulation
B. Schizogony
C. Gametogony
D. All above
87)
Cecal coccidiosis of chickens is caused by
A
A.
Eimeria tennella
B.
E. acervulina
C.
E. necatrix
D. All above
88)
In turkeys, cecal coccidiosis is caused by
A
A.
E. adenoides
,
B.
Eimeria tennella
C.
E. acervulina
D.
E. Necatrix
89)
In chickens, Intestinal coccidiosis is caused by
D
A.
E. necatrix
B.
E. brunetti
C.
E. maxima
D.
All above
90)
Cecal coccidiosis in chickens may be confused with
B
A. Blackhead
B. Salmonellosis
C. Both
D. None
91)
Intestinal coccidiosis in chickens may be confused with
A
A. Hemorrhagic anemia syndrome
B. Blackhead
C. Salmonellosis
D. All above
92)
Trypanosoma
congolense
is a monomorphic having
B
A. No flagellum
B. A free flagellum
C. Two flagellums
D. Three flagellums
93)
Trypanosoma
lewisi
is
B
A. A non-pathogenic species not transmitted by rat flea
B. A nonpathogenic species transmitted by rat flea
C. Pathogenic species not transmitted by rat flea
D. Pathogenic species transmitted by rat flea
94)
Leishmanisis
is found in approximately
A
A. 90 tropical and subtropical countries
B. 70 tropical and subtropical countries
C. 50 tropical and subtropical countries
D. 30 tropical and subtropical countries
95)
All species of
Lesishmania
in human are morphologically
A
A. Similar
B. Partially similar
C. Different
D. Partially different
96)
Leishmanial stage is present in the cells of the
A
A. Vertebrates
B. Invertebrates
C. Both
D. None
97)
Toxoplasma
gondii
, a member of the
A
A. Apicomplexa
B. Sporozoa
C. Mastigophora
D. Cilliata
98)
Lesihmaniasis
is transmitted by
A
A. Sand fly
B. Tsetse fly
C. Horse fly
D. House fly
99)
Visceral leishmaniasis is also known as
C
A. Kala azar
B. Dum dum fecer
C. Both
D. None
100)
Kala azar is also called as
B
A. Cutenous leishmanisais
B. Visceral leishmaniasis
C. Both
D. None
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
7
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
101)
Each of the following statements concerning
Ascaris lumbricoides
is correct except:
C
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides
is one of the largest nematode
B.
Ascaris lumbricoides
can cause pneumonia
C. Both dogs and cats are intermediate host of
Ascaris
lumbricoides
D.
Ascaris lumbricoides
is transmitted by ingestion of eggs
102)
Each of the following statements concerning hookworm infection is correct except
D
A. Hookworm infection can cause pneumonia
B. Hookworm infection is acquired by humans when
filariform larvae penetrate the skin
C. Hookworm infection is caused by
Necatar americanus
D. Hookworm infection can be diagnosed by finding the
trophozoite in the stool
103)
Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites except
C
A.
Echinococcus granulosus
B.
Taenia solium
C.
Ascaris lumbricoides
D. None
104)
Phylum Nemathelminthes includes
A
A. Roundworms
B. Tapeworms
C. Flukes
D. None
105)
Phylum Platyhelminthes includes
B
A. Round worms
B. Flatworms
C. Thorny headed worms
D. All of above
106)
The name helminth is derived from the Greek words helmins or helminthos which means
D
A. Fluke
B. Nematode
C. Cestode
D. Worm
107)
The name helminth is usually applied to Parasitic and non-parasitic species of
D
A. Flatworms
B. Tapeworms
C. Roundworms
D. All of above
108)
Members of Phylum Platyhelminthes are
A
A. Dorsoventrally flattened
B. Laterally Compressed
C. Round
D. None
109)
Members of Phylum Nemathelminthes are
C
A. Dorsoventrally flattened
B. Laterally Compressed
C. Round
D. None
110)
Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill
A
A. Helminths
B. Insects
C. Arachnids
D. Protozooa
111)
Anthelmintics are chemicals used to kill
D
A. Flatworm
B. Tapeworm
C. Roundworm
D. All of above
112)
Anthelmintics solutions when given orally are called as
C
A. Drench
B. Bolus
C. Both a and b
D. None
113)
Oral preparations of anthelmintics are called as
A
A. Drench
B. Spot on
C. Pour on
D. All of above
114)
Anthelmintics are used to
A
A. Kill the worms
B. Remove the eggs from pasture
C. Both
D. None
115)
Anthelmintics may be administered as
D
A. Drench
B. Bolus
C. Injection
D. All of above
116)
Benzimidazoles work against parasites by
A
A. Binding with protein tubulin
B. Mimicking acetylcholine
C. Both
D. None of above
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
8
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
117)
Broad spectrum anthelmintics include
D
A. Benzimidazoles
B. Triclabendazole
C. Organophosphate
D. Both a and b
118)
Narrow spectrum anthelmintics include
D
A. Organophosphate
B. Triclabendazole
C. Benzimidazole
D. None
119)
In horses Fenbendazole is used to kill
D
A. Roundworms
B. Tapeworms
C. Flukes
D. All of above
120)
Avermectins act against parasites by
C
A. Stopping the energy metabolism
B. Inhibiting the Cholinesterase
C. Changing the chloride ion channel activity
D. None of these
121)
Anti-cestodal drugs include
A
A. Niclosamide
B. Organophosphate
C. Levamisole
D. None
122)
Praziquantel is effective against
B
A. Trematodes
B. Cestodes
C. Nematodes
D. None
123)
Parasites with direct life cycle are known a
A
A. Monoxenous
B. Heteroxenous
C. Both
D. None
124)
Control of parasites with direct life cycle is easy because
B
A. Have to control only in Intermediate host
B. Have to control only in definitive host
C. Both
D. None
125)
Monogenetic trematodes are
B
A. Viviparous
B. Oviparous
C. Both
D. None
126)
Larvae of subclass monogenea are
A
A. Similar in appearance to adult
B. Different in appearance to adults
C. Miniature of mature tapeworm
D. None
127)
Humans are------------------ hosts of
Fasciola hepatic
A
A. Accidental
B. Definative
C. Intermediate
D. None
128)
Order
Aspidogastrea
contains ------------------- (No. of families)
A
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
129)
Which one of the followings is correct statement
D
A. Almost all trematodes are hermaphrodite
B. All are hermaphrodite except
Schistosomatidae
C. Members of Genus
Fasciola
are hermaphrodite
D. All of above
130)
Male reproductive organs of flukes have
A
A. Two testes
B. Two pair of testes
C. Numerous testes
D. Both a and b
131)
Life cycle of a typical trematode has--------------------different life stages
C
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
132)
Lancet liver fluke is the common name of
D
A.
Fasciola hepatica
B.
Opisthorchis viverrini
C.
Clonorchis sinensis
D. None
133)
Which one is the correct way to write the name of an organism in Binomial nomenclature system?
D
A. Fasciola hepatica
B.
Fasciola hepatica
C. Fasciola hepatica
D. Both a and b
134)
Study of group of organisms which form natural groups with features, usually morphological, in common, is called
A
A. Taxonomy
B. Entomology
C. Helminthology
D. Biology
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
9
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
135)
The names of genus and species are expressed in ____ form
A
A. Latin
B. Greek
C. Roman
D. English
136)
The first
metacestode
stage in the life cycle of parasites such as the
Pseudophyllidae
and
Diphyllidae
A
A. Procercoid
B. Plerocercoid
C. Tetrathyridium
D. Cystecercus
137)
Large fluid filled cyst lined with germinal epithelium from which are produced invaginated scolices.
A
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Tetrathyridium
138)
The large fluid filled containing bladder with a number of invaginated
scolices
attached to the wall
A
A. Coenurus
B. Plerocercoid
C. Tetrathyridium
D. Hydatid cyst
139)
A
metacestode
with a single non-invaginated scolex withdrawn into a small vesicle with practically no cavity
A
A. Cysticercoid
B. Plerocercoid
C. Tetrathyridium
D. Hydatid cyst
140)
Nervous system of Cestodes is present in
A
A. Scolex
B. Bothria
C. Bothridiate
D. Proboscis
141)
Heart worm of dog is the name given to
B
A.
Diptelonema reconditum
B.
Dirofilaria immitis
C.
Taenia saginata
D.
Setaria cervi
142)
Subcutaneous worm of dog
A
A.
Diptelonema reconditum
B.
Taenia saginata
C.
Taenia solium
D.
Setaria cervi
143)
Subcutaneous worm of duck
C
A.
Diptelonema reconditum
B.
Taenia solium
C.
Ornithofilaria fallisiensis
D.
Setaria cervi
144)
Peritoneal worm of cattle
B
A.
Ornithofilaria fallisiensis
B.
Setaria cerv
C.
Taenia solium
D.
Diptelonema reconditum
145)
Peritoneal worm of Horse
B
A.
Ornithofilaria fallisiensis
B.
Setaria equina
C.
Taenia saginata
D.
Diptelonema reconditum
146)
For blood examination of parasites following technique is used
D
A. Knott’s concentration technique
B. Gradient centrifugation technique
C. Membrane filtration technique
D. All of above
147)
Larvae of helminthes present in sputum
D
A.
Necator americanus
B. Strongyloides
C. Ascaris
D. All of above
148)
Fragments of parasites present in faeces
A
A.
Echinococcus granulosus
B.
Haemonchus contortus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
149)
Kidney worm of dog is
A
A.
Dioctophyma renale
B.
Necator americanus
C.
Diptelonema reconditum
D.
Oesophagostomum
150)
Kidney worm of pig is
B
A.
Haemonchus contortus
B.
Stephanurus edentatus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Ascaris lumbricoides
151)
Bladder worm of dog is
C
A.
Echinococcus granulosus
B.
Ascaris lumbricoides
C.
Capillaria plica
D.
Trichostrongylus
152)
Helminths eggs excreted in urine are
D
A.
Wucheraria bancrofti
B.
Onchocerca vulvulus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D. a & b
Discipline: Parasitology
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B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
153)
Helminth parasite found in muscles is
A
A.
Trichinella spiralis
B.
Haemonchus contortus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
154)
River blindness is also known as
B
A.
Haemonchosis
B.
Onchcerciasis
C.
Echinococcosis
D. None of them
155)
One of the symptoms of onchocerciasis
C
A. Anaemia
B. Convulsions
C. Presence of nodules on the skin
D. All of above
156)
For diagnosis of river blindness
D
A. Blood examination
B. Urine examination
C. Faecal examination
D. Skin examination
157)
The basic line of action to treat flukes is
B
A. Control of mosquitoes
B. Control of snails
C. Control of flies
D. Control of insects
158)
Trematodes present in bile duct and pancrease is
A.
Fasiola hepatica
B.
Eurytrema pancreaticum
C.
Echinococcus granulosus
D.
Oesophagostomum
159)
Scientific name of liver fluke is
C
A.
Haemonchus contortus
B.
Ascaris lumbricoides
C.
Fasciola hepatica
D.
Oesophagostomum
160)
Chinese or Oriental liver fluke is called as
A
A.
Clonorchis sinensis
B.
Oesophagostomum
C.
Fasciola hepatica
D.
Ascaris lumbricoides
161)
Following parasites are also called as blood flukes
B
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides
B.
Schistosomes
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum Cooperia
162)
Head of cestodes is also known as
A
A. Scolex
B. Proboscis
C. Bothria
D. Bothridiate
163)
Bothria is present in _____ region of cestodes
C
A. Neck
B. Strobila
C. Head
D. Skin
164)
Projections called microtriches in cestodes are helpful for
C
A. Attachment with host
B. Attachment with female
C. Increase in surface area
D. Attract feed
165)
Main nerve center in cestodes is composed of
A
A. Ganglia
B. Nerves
C. Neurons
D. None of above
166)
Excretory system of cestodes is composed of
B
A. Diffusion
B. Flame cells
C. Osmosis
D. Active transport
167)
Pork tape worm is name given to following parasite
A
A.
Taenia solium
B.
Taenia saginata
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
168)
Cestodes are characterized by
C
A. True body cavity
B. Incomplete body cavity
C. Absence of body cavity
D. Complete body cavity
169)
Respiratory and blood vascular system of platyhelminths is
B
A. Complete
B. Absent
C. Well-developed
D. None of above
170)
Regarding digestive system, trematodes have
C
A. No alimentary canal
B. Incomplete alimentary canal
C. Alimentary canal
D. None of above
Discipline: Parasitology
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B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
171)
Monogenea are ectoparasites of
B
A. Birds
B. Fish
C. Mammals
D. None of above
172)
Nematodes are
B
A. Bisexual
B. Unisexual
C. Both
D. None
173)
Nematodes are having following characteristic (s)
D
A. Cylindrical
B. Round
C. Pointed ends
D. All of above
174)
Body of nematodes is covered with
A
A. Cuticle
B. Dermis
C. Hypodermis
D. None of above
175)
Deworming of animals for nematodes should be done after
D
A. One month
B. Every year
C. One week
D. 3 months
176)
2
nd
dose of anthelmintics should be given after ___ days of first dose
D
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
177)
Ivermectin was first used as
A
A. Antibiotic
B. Antimalarial
C. Antiseptic
D. All of above
178)
Change of animal species for grazing in a particular pasture is known as
A
A. Alternate grazing
B. Rotational grazing
C. Replacement grazing
D. All of above
179)
Change of pastures for the animals is known as
B
A. Alternate grazing
B. Rotational grazing
C. Replacement grazing
D. All of above
180)
In Pakistan, the prevalence of gastrointestinal nematodes is higher during
A
A. July – August
B. March – April
C. November – December
D. January – February
181)
The main defense against parasitic diseases is
B
A. Vaccination
B. Cleanliness
C. Deworming
D. Antibiotics
182)
Use of different group of anthelmintics for deworming after 3 months is called as
B
A. Alternate deworming
B. Strategic deworming
C. Rotational deworming
D. Changing of dewormer
183)
Use of microorganisms for the control of parasites is called as
A
A. Biological control
B. Chemical control
C. Strategic deworming
D. Chemotherapy
184)
Treatment with the help of chemicals is known as
B
A. Immunological control
B. Chemotherapy
C. Strategic deworming
D. Biological control
185)
For
Haemonchus contortus
Egg per gram of faeces more than __ is considered as heavy infection
D
A. 1000-2000
B. 500-1000
C. 100-150
D. 2000-3000
186)
Club shaped esophagus without a posterior bulb is termed as
C
A. Rhabditiform
B. Peri enteric
C. Filariform
D. None
187)
Club shaped anterior portion having pear shaped posterior bulb is termed as
A
A. Rhabditiform
B. Filariform
C. Peri enteric
D. None
188)
Sense organs of Nematodes are
A
A. Amphids
B. Cervical papillae
C. Genital papillae
D. Phasmids
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B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
189)
Cuticular thickening in the dorsal wall of cloaca which covers the spicule is called as
A
A. Gubernaculum
B. Telamon
C. Spicule
D. Cloaca
190)
Cuticular thickening in the ventral wall of cloaca which covers the spicule is called as
B
A. Gubernaculum
B. Telamon
C. Spicule
D. Cloaca
191)
Most important factor responsible for the hatching of nematodes eggs inside the host is
A
A. Dissolved Carbon dioxide
B. Humidity
C. Temperature
D. All of above
192)
Time from infection of final host to production of eggs by the mature adult worms is known as
A
A. Prepatent period
B. Arrested larval development
C. Hypobiosis
D. Periparturient rise
193)
Inhibited larval development is also known as
B
A. Periparturient rise
B. Arrested larval development
C. Dissemination
D. Prepatent period
194)
L3 may survive in the pastures from autumn until late spring in sufficient numbers to initiate infection are called as
C
A. Adults
B. Mature larvae
C. Overwintered larvae
D. Arrested larvae
195)
Beneath the cuticle of nematodes is
B
A. Muscle layer
B. Hypodermis
C. Dermic
D. None
196)
Beneath the hypodermis in nematodes is
A
A. Muscle layer
B. Cuticle
C. Dermis
D. None
197)
Pere-enteric space between alimentary canal and muscle cells of nematodes is filled with
A
A. Fluid
B. Mucus
C. Blood
D. None
198)
In nematodes, alimentary canal is
C
A. Absent
B. Incomplete
C. Complete
D. None
199)
The members of class Nematomorph are also called as
A
A. Hairworms
B. Hookworms
C. Ringworms
D. None
200)
Hair worms may be regarded as
B
A. Disease producing Parasites
B. False parasitic
C. Beneficial
D. None
201)
Members of class acanthocephalan are also known as
A
A. Thorny headed worms
B. Thread worms
C. Hook worms
D. Whipworm
202)
Trichuris
is also known as
D
A. Thorny headed worm
B. Hook worm
C. Thread worm
D. Whipworm
203)
Helminths are economically significant as they
D
A. Lower productivity of hosts
B. Lower quality of meat and skin
C. Affect immunity
D. All of above
204)
For detection of helminth infection, we use
D
A. Faecal exam
B. Blood exam
C. Sputum
D. All of above
205)
In feces, the most observed thing for nematode diagnosis is
B
A. Adult worm
B. Eggs
C. Segments
D. Larvae
206)
For qualitative faecal examination, we use
D
A. Withlock chamber
B. Stolls egg counting technique
C. McMaster chamber
D. All of above
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B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
207)
For simple floatation method of faecal examination, we use
A
A. Floatation solution
B. Centrifuge machine
C. Stay overnight
D. None
208)
For centrifugal floatation of faecal examination, we use
B
A. Floatation solutions
B. Centrifuge machine
C. Both
D. None
209)
Principle of centrifuge machine is
A
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Density
D. Specific gravity
210)
For faecal examination, collection of faeces will be from
A
A. Rectum
B. Ground
C. Freshly from ground
D. None
211)
Macroscopic examination means the examination
B
A. With microscope
B. With naked eye
C. With hand lens
D. None of above
212)
Microscopic examination means the examination
A
A. With microscope
B. With naked eye
C. With hand lens
D. None of above
213)
Principal of simple floatation method for faecal examination is
A
A. Specific gravity
B. Centrifugal force
C. Centripetal force
D. Density
214)
Floatation solutions used for faecal examination are
D
A. NaCl
B. Zn SO
4
C. Mg SO
4
D. All above
215)
Capacity of a Whitlock chamber used for quantitative faecal examination is
D
A. 0.50 ml
B. 0.15 ml
C. 1.5 ml
D. 2 ml
216)
Whitlock chamber is a modification of
B
A. Stolls
B. McMaster
C. Simple floatation
D. None
217)
Factors affecting faecal egg count are
D
A. Anthelmintic history and season
B. Season and Type of parasites
C. Breed of animal and season
D. All above
218)
Most commonly used anthelmintic are
D
A. Benzimidazole
B. Levamisole
C. Ivermectin
D. All above
219)
The anthelmintic used for ectoparasites also is
A
A. Ivermectin
B. Benzimidazole
C. Levamisole
D. All of above
220)
Technique used for recovery of lungworm larvae is
B
A. Coproculture
B. Baermann apparatus
C. Coprocullure
D. Egg hatch assay
221)
Technique used for recovery of L3 of nematodes is
A
A. Baermann apparatus
B. Coprocullure
C. Egg hatch assay
D. Larval development assay
222)
CSF eosinophilia may be caused by
A
A.
Angiostrongylus
B.
Haemonchus
C. Both
D. None
223)
Transverse myelitis caused by
B
A.
Trichostyrongylus
B.
Schistosoma mansonii
C.
Oesophegostomum
D.
Trichuris
224)
The Helminth of most economic significance in livestock is
D
Discipline: Parasitology
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14
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A.
Trichostyrongylus
B.
Oesophegostomum
C.
Trichuris
D.
Haemoncus
225)
The parasite of marshy areas is
B
A.
Haemonchus
B.
Fasciola
C.
Trichostrongylus
D. None
226)
Parasite transmitted by eating poorly cooked beef is
C
A. Haemonchus
B. Trichostrongylus
C.
Taenia Saginata
D. None
227)
Hydatidosis is caused by
B
A.
Taenia Saginata
B.
Echinococus granulosus
C. Haemonchus
D. Trichostrongylus
228)
Following is the namatode parasite of poultry
B
A.
Taenia Saginata
B.
Ascaridia galli
C.
Haemonchus
D.
Trichostrongylus
229)
Haemonchus
may cause --------------- in livestock
D
A. Anaemia
B. Retarded growth
C. Loss of vigour
D. All
230)
Dwarf tapeworm is also called as
A
A.
Hymenolepis nana
B. Haemonchus
C. Trichostrongylus
D. None
231)
Brood fish tapeworm is also called as
C
A.
Haemonchus
B.
Taenia Saginala
C.
Diphyllobothrium latum
D.
Trichostrongylus
232)
The largest tapeworm of poultry is
B
A.
Taenia Saginala
B.
Raillietina
C.
Haemonchus
D.
Trichostrongylus
233)
Egg of nematodes hatch due to
D
A. CO
2
B. Humidity
C. Tempertaure
D. All
234)
Body wall of nematodes consist of
D
A. Cuticle
B. Longitudinal Muscles
C. Hypodermis
D. All
235)
Nervous system of nematodes is composed of
D
A. Ganglia
B. Long nerve trunk
C. Esophageal nerve ring
D. all of above
236)
Secretory and excretory system serves in
D
A. Reproduction
B. Excretion of by products
C. Osmoregulation
D. a and b
237)
Mode of reproduction of nematode is
D
A. Ovoviviparous
B. Oviparous
C. Parthenogenesis
D. All of above
238)
Direct life cycle is also called
A
A. Monoxenous
B. Heteroxenous
C. Complet
D. None
239)
Usually, the intermediate host of nematodes is
D
A. Arthropod
B. Trematode
C. Both a and b
D. None
240)
Larvae of following nematodes can penetrate the skin
A
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides
B.
Trichostrongylus
C.
Haemonchus
D.
All
241)
Buccal capsule is the name given to _____ of nematode
A
A. Mouth cavity
B. Head
C. Neck
D. None
242)
Larvae having long esophagus not proportional to the length of body are called as
A
Discipline: Parasitology
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B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A. Filariform
B. Rhabditiform
C. Gubernacular
D. None
243)
Esophagus length shorter than length of parasite in proportion is called as
A
A. Rhaboditiform
B. Filariform
C. Gubernacula
D. None
244)
Maturation of Gastrointestinal nematodes mostly occurs in
D
A. Ground/soil
B. Vegetation
C. Intermediate host
D. Gastrointestinal tract
245)
Large roundworm of ruminants is
A
A.
Toxocara vitulorum
B.
Diphyllobothrium latum
C.
Taenia Saginala
D.
Haemonchus
246)
Caecal worm is the name of
A
A.
Heterakis gallinarum
B.
Diphyllobothrium latum
C.
Taenia Saginala
D.
Haemonchus
spp
247)
Following is the example of hookworm
A
A.
Ancylostoma caninum
B.
Barderpole worm
C.
Haemonchus contortus
D. All of above
248)
The largest animal in the world is a
C
A. Tapeworm
B. Roundworm
C. Whale
D. Elephant
249)
Body of following parasite is ribbon like
D
A. Tapeworm
B. Cestodes
C. Roundworms
D. a and b
250)
Following part of cestode is globular in shape, at the anterior end, responsible for attachment to the gut wall
A
A. Scolex
B. Probosces
C. Strobila
D. All of above
251)
Primary amoebic meningoencephalitis is caused by_____________.
A. Balamuthia spp.
B. Acanthamoeba
C
C.
Naegleria fowleri
D.
Iodamoeba buetschlii
252)
Congenitally transmitted parasitic infection is___________.
A.
Pneumocystis carinii
B.
Toxoplasma gondii
B
C. Amoebiasis
D.
Trichuris trichura
253)
Charcot- layden crystals are seen in the sputum in infection with___________
A. Clonorchissinensis
B.
Paragonimus westermani
B
C.
Fasciolopsis buski
D.
Fasciola hepatica
254)
Protozoan transmitted sexually is____________.
A.
Entamoeba histolytica
B.
Trichomonas vaginalis
B
C.
Giardia lamblia
D.
Balantidium coli
255)
Mode of infection of
Dracunculus medinensis
is_____________.
C
A. Skin penetration
B. Inhalation
C. Ingestion
D. Inoculation
256)
Each of the following parasites passes through the lung during human infection EXCEPT:
C
A.
Necator americanus
B.
Strongyloides stercoralis
C.
Wuchereria bancrofti
D.
Ascaris lumbricoides
257)
The main anatomic location of
Schistosoma mansoni
adult worms is:
D
A. Renal tubules
B. Lung alveoli
C. Bone marrow
D. Intestinal venules
258)
Each of the following statements concerning
Strongyloides stercoralis
is correct EXCEPT:
D
A.
S. stercoralis
produces filariform larvae.
B.
Migrating larvae of
S. stercoralis
induce a marked
eosinophilia.
C.
S. stercoralis
undergoes a free-living life cycle in soil. D.
S. stercoralis
is acquired by ingestion of eggs.
259)
Which of the following tapeworms is acquired by eating raw or under-cooked pork?
B
A.
Taenia saginata
B.
Taenia solium
C.
Diphyllobothrium latum
D.
Hymenolepis nana
Discipline: Parasitology
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16
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
260)
Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
C
A.
Echinococcus granulosus
B.
Taenia solium
C.
Ascaris lumbricoides
D.
Trichinella spiralis
261)
There are four bands of muscles in Nematodes, two are dorso-lateral and two_________.
B
A. dorso-ventral
B. ventro-lateral
C. dorso-lateral
D. latero-ventral
262)
Digestive system of nematodes has two openings and in form of___________.
D
A. Neuron
B. Muscles
C. Digestive tract
D. Alimentary canal
263)
Nematoda means___________.
C
A. pointed bodies
B. peaked heads
C. pointed ends
D. pointed cells
264)
Nematodes lack respiratory system and_______________.
C
A. Digestive system
B. Nervous system
C. Circulatory system
D. All of these
265)
Undulating waves of contraction and relaxation of muscles helps Nematodes in________.
B
A. Excretion
B. Locomotion
C. Digestion
D. All of these
266)
Knott’s concentration technique is used to
C
A. Calculate egg per gram of faeces
B. Estimate the infection level on pasture
C. Diagnose microfilaria in blood
D. All of above
267)
In cestodes following types of larva/metacestode could be seen
C
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
268)
There are following basic types of scolex in cestodes
C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
269)
Body of adult cestode can be divided into how many parts?
C
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
270)
Final host of
Echinococcus granulosus
is
A
A. Carnivores
B. Herbivores
C. Both
D. None
271)
Cestodes are
B
A. Non parasitic
B. Parasitic
C. Both
D. None
272)
Nematodes may be
C
A. Parasitic
B. Non parasitic
C. Both
D. None
273)
Among all helminths only following are having segmented body
D
A. Nematodes
B. Acanthocephalans
C. Trematodes
D. Cestodes
274)
Among helminths complete digestive tract could only be found in
A
A. Nematodes
B. Acanthocephalans
C. Trematodes
D. Cestodes
275)
Vitelline glands could be seen in
C
A. Cestodes
B. Trematodes
C. Both
D. None
276)
Dwarf tapeworm of poultry is a
C
A. Trematode
B. Nematode
C. Cestode
D. None
277)
Larval form of
Echinococcus granulosus
developed in man is known as
D
A. Cysticercus
B. Coenurus
C. Cysticercoid
D. None
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
278)
Body of flukes appears like
C
A. Common Pin
B. Ribbon
C. Leaf
D. None
279)
Definitive host of beef tapeworm is
A
A. Cattle
B. Man
C. Bird
D. None
280)
Helminthology is the study of Phylum
C
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Nemathelminths
C. Both
D. None
281)
Taenia solium
could be present in
C
A. Beef eating community
B. Mutton eating community
C. Pork eating Community
D. All above
282)
Taenia saginata
could be present in
C
A. Pork eating Community
B. Mutton eating community
C. Beef eating community
D. All above
283)
Taenia ovis
is
B
A. Ectoparasite
B. Endoparasite
C. Both
D. None
284)
Fasciola gigantica
is usually ------------------- in size than
Fasciola hepatica
B
A. Smaller
B. Bigger
C. Both
D. None
285)
Following is known as double-pored tapeworm
A
A.
Dipylidium caninum
B.
Echinococcus granulosus
C.
Hymenolepis nana
D.
Spirometra
286)
Following parasite act(s) as intermediate host of
Dipylidium caninum
C
A. Flea
B. Lice
C. Both
D. None
287)
Barberpole worm is common name of
C
A.
Trichuris trichura
B.
Ancylostoma caninum
C.
Haemonchus contortus
D.
Ascaris lumbricuides
288)
Haemonchus contortus
is most important parasite of
A
A. Sheep
B. Camel
C. Buffalo
D. Poultry
289)
Following parasite acts as intermediate host in life cycle of
Haemonchus contortus
D
A. Snail
B. Ant
C. Lice
D. None
290)
Adult barber pole worm is found in
D
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Caecum
D. None
291)
Following drug could be used for treatment of
Haemonchus contortus
A. Benzimidazole
B. Ivermectin
C. Levamisole
D. All above
292)
Strongylus edentatus
is a
A
A. Nematode
B. Cestode
C. Trematode
D. None
293)
In definitive host,
Syngamus trachea
is found in
D
A. Small intestine
B. Large intestine
C. Cecum
D. None
294)
Normal definitive host of
Ascaris suum
is
C
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Pig
D. Man
295)
Toxocara canis
is a
C
A. Cestode
B. Trematode
C. Nematode
D. Protozoa
Discipline: Parasitology
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18
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59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
296)
Toxocara vitulorum
is a
D
A. Cestode
B. Trematode
C. Protozoa
D. Nematode
297)
Whip worm is common name of
C
A.
Toxocara vitularum
B.
Haemonchus contortus
C.
Trichuris trichura
D. None
298)
Heartworm is common name of
A
A.
Dirofilaria immitis
B.
Onchocerca cervicalis
C.
Loa loa
D. None
299)
Eyeworm is common name of
B
A.
Onchocerca cervicalis
B.
Loa loa
C.
Dirofilaria immitis
D. None
300)
Adults of
Trichinella spiralis
are found in
D
A. Cardiac muscles
B. Smooth muscles
C. Skeletal musclues
D. Small intestine
301)
Taenia Saginata
&
T. Solium
(tapeworms; cestodes) can be controlled by________.
A
A. Sanitation
B. Cooking Pork
C. Rodent Control
D. A & B
302)
The term "measly beef" refers to the presence of___________.
B
A. eggs of
Taenia saginata
in muscle tissue
B. cysticerci of
Taenia saginata
in muscle tissue
C. sarcocysts (tissue cysts) of Sarcocystis in muscle tissue D. tissue cysts of
Toxoplasma gondii
in muscle tissue
303)
Cysticercus Cellulosae (tapeworms; cestodes) __________.
D
A. Also known as pork measles
B. Infects humans
C. Infects dogs
D. a & b
304)
Taenia Solium
(tapeworm; cestodes) Eggs may infect____________.
D
A. Pigs
B. Cattle
C. Humans
D. a & c
305)
Which genus name does NOT match the intermediate host?
B
A.
Taenia Hyditanata
; sheep
B.
Taenia Ovis
; Cattle
C.
Taenia krabbei
; cervids
D.
Taenia pisiformis
; rabbits
306)
Echinococcus granulosus
(tapeworm) common definitive and intermediate host parings:
C
A. dog and sheep
B. dog and horse
C. a & b
D. none
307)
Echinococcus granulosus
(tapeworm) has__________.
A
A. an armed rostellum
B. an unarmed rostellum
C. no rostellum
D. None
308)
Hydatid cysts are generally____________.
D
A. Multilocular in
E. granulosus
B.
Multilocular in
E. multilocularis
C. Unilocular in
E. granulosus
D. b & c
309)
Pathologoy caused by
Echinococccus granulosus
(tapeworm)_____________.
C
A. adult worm does extensive damage to the intestinal
mucosa
B. the larva stage does little damage to its host
C. the larval stage may cause pressure necrosis
D. none of the above
310)
Control of
Echinococcus granulosus
(tapeworm) may be achieved in endemic areas by:
D
A. vigorous public education
B. periodic mass treatment of dogs
C. rigid control of livestock slaughter
D. All
311)
A
Dipylidium caninium
(tapeworm) control program should include__________.
D
A. removing adult worms
B. remove fecal material from the premise
C. control/remove the flea intermediate host
D. a & c
312)
Mesocestioides
spp. (tapeworm) has____________.
B
A.
1 intermediate host
B. 2 intermediate hosts
C.
3 intermediate hosts
D. 4 intermediate hosts
313)
A dog that chases & eats wild rabbits is most likely to become infected with which cestode__________.
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
19
of
59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A.
Echnioccus granulosus
B.
Taenia pisiformis
B
C.
Diphyllobothrium latum
D.
Dipylidium caninum
314)
The most complete medical treatment for a cat infected with
Dipylidium caninum
is:
A
A. praziquantel, imidacloprid
B. praziquantel, pyrantel
C. pyrantel, fenbendazole
D. pyrantel, imidacloprid
315)
Neurocystocercosis develops after ingestion of eggs of
Taenia solium
found in_______.
C
A. undercooked meat of infected pigs
B. feces of infected pigs
C. feces of infected people
D. undercooked meat from infected cows
316)
The external surface of the nematodes (roundworms) is___________.
B
A. A simple cellular membrane
B. A cuticle, inert and resistant to the environment
C. A tegument similar to those seen in Trematodes
D. None of above
317)
Nematodes (roundworms)____________.
D
A. Are diecious
B. Have a rudimentary nervous system
C. Have a digestive system with only an oral opening
(mouth)
D. a and b
318)
The life cycle of the nematodes (roundworms) often relies on___________.
D
A. The production of large numbers of eggs
B. Development that relies on molting from one stage to
another
C. Ingestion by the host often from herbage
D. All
319)
The
Ascardis
are successful as parasites because_____________.
D
A. Eggs survive in the environment for extended periods
of time
B. Produce large number of eggs
C. Survive for large periods of time in the host
D. a & b
320)
Eggs of
Ascaris Suum
have___________.
A
A. A mamillated shell
B. Have a fully developed larvae when passed
C. Have a relatively thin shell
D. a & b
321)
Hetarakis Gallinarum
____________.
D
A. May be a vector
Histomonas
spp.
B. Adult is found in the cecum
C. Egg has a thick shell
D. a, b and c
322)
Miracidium is a larval stage in the development of ____________.
C
A.
Taenia solium
B. Ascaris
C.
Fasciola hepatica
D. Echinococcus
323)
The intermediate host of
Fasciola
is____________.
A
A.
Limnaea truncatula
B.
Pila globosa
C. Lamellidens
D. Helix
324)
The body cavity of Ascaris is pseudocoel because_____________.
B
A. it contains large cells termed pseudocoelocytes
B.
it is extremely bound by muscle layer and internally by
intestines
C. it has very little parenchyma
D. it is filled with pseudocoelomic fluid
325)
Ascaris lumbericoides
lives in the intestine of_____________.
C
A. Sheep and goat
B. Monkey
C. Homo sapiens
D. Pig
326)
The life cycle of
Ascaris lumbericoides
requires an intermediate host which is____________.
D
A. Cattle
B. snail
C. man
D. None of the above
327)
The life span of
Ascaris
is_____________.
A
A. More than 30 days
B. About an year
C. Six months
D. 8 to 10 months
328)
The infected stage of
Ascaris
is___________.
C
A. Egg
B. Fourth Juvenile
C. Second Juvenile
D. Adult worm itself
329)
The exterior of
Ascaris
is covered by_____________.
D
A. Pellicle
B. Epidermis
C. Sclerites
D. Cuticle
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
20
of
59
B) Helminthology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
330)
The phenomenon by which male and female sexes could be differentiated morphologically is called_____________.
C
A. Variation
B. Polymorphism
C. Sexual dimorphism
D. None of these
331)
The disease caused by the hook worm is called____________.
D
A. Ascariasis
B. Ancylostomiasis
C. Enterobiasis
D. Elephentiasis
332)
Elephantiasis is caused by____________.
B
A.
Ascaris lumbericoides
B.
Wuchereria bancrofti
C.
Enterobius vermicularis
D.
Fasciola hepatica
333)
Cuticle in
Ascaris
is an adaptation for____________.
A
A. Parasitism
B. Growth
C. Reproduction
D. Locomotion
334)
Ascaris
normally inhabits the lumen of___________.
C
A. Stomach
B. Appendix
C. Small intestine
D. Large intestine
335)
Respiration of
Ascaris
is____________.
C
A. Cutaneous
B. Aerobic
C. Anaerobic
D. both b and c
336)
The mode of nutrition in
Ascaris
is____________.
C
A. Holozoic
B. Holophytic
C. Saprozoic
D. Saprophytic
337)
Which of the following has no alternate host?
B
A. Tape worm
B.
Ascaris lumbericoides
C.
Plasmodium vivax
D.
Fasciola hepatica
338)
Sperms of Ascaris are characteristic because they are_____________.
C
A. giant in size
B. without mitochondria
C. amoeboid shape
D. with large body and tail
339)
Which is not a pathological effect of helminth infections?
A
A. Diarrhea
B. Hemorrhage
C. Enlargement and swelling of organs
D. Anemia
340)
What helminth is responsible for causing the greatest number of worm infections worldwide?
B
A.
Enterobius vermicularis
B.
Ascaris lumbricoides
C.
Strongyloides stercoralis
D.
Trichinella spiralis
341)
What is the intermediate host for the schistosomes?
A
A. Snails
B. Humans
C. Blood-sucking insects
D. Soil
342)
Which is the smallest tape worm infecting man?
B
A.
Taenia saginata
B.
Hymenlopis nana
C.
Taenia solium
D.
Diphyllobothrium latum
343)
Which of the following nematode is a ovo-viviparous?
C
A.
Enterobius vermicularis
B.
Trichenella spiralis
C.
Strongyloides stercoralis
D.
Dracunculus medinensis
344)
The larval form of
Taenia solium
is called__________.
A
A. Cysticerus cellulosae
B. Cysticercoid
C. Cysticerus bovis
D. Hydatid cyst
345)
Dog heart tape worm is the common name for_________.
C
A.
Toxocara canis
B.
Mansonella streptocerca
C.
Dirofilaria immitis
D.
Toxoplasma gondi
346)
Which of the following is not a bile stained egg?
D
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides
B.
Trichuris trichiura
C.
Taenia solium
D.
A ncylostoma duodenale
347)
Casoni’s test is used for the diagnosis of____________.
B
A. Taeniasis
B. Hydatidiasis
