Description
For all students who want to prepare for GAT/GRE Subject Type Test in the Parasitology part, this collection will cover a bunch of various questions which help students prepare for the test.
Study Set Content:
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
41
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D) Public Health Parasitology (MCQ’s)
Answer
Key
C. doctor
D. larva
686)
_____________animals act as reservoirs for most of the Trichostrongylus species.
B
A. omnivorous
B. Herbivorous
C. carnivoros
D. None of these
687)
Trichocephaliasis is known as __________
C
A. threadworm infection
B. pinworm infection
C. Whipworm disease
D. hookworm
688)
Rarely, T. vulpis is responsible for causing ____________in man.
A
A. visceral larva migrans
B. cutaneous larva migrans
C. ocular larva migrans
D. All of these
689)
A primary host that harbors the pathogen but shows no ill effects and serves as a source of infection
A
A. Reservoir host
B. Definitive host
C. Paratenic host
D. None of these
690)
Clinical symptoms of Toxocariasis in man can be discussed under____________different forms
C
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
691)
____________can act as reservoir hosts for human hookworm infections
B
A. cats
B. Dogs
C. fox
D. chicken
692)
Zoonotic filariasis is a vector borne disease and blood sucking insects act as ________vectors for transmission of the disease
A
A. biological
B. mechanical
C. genitical
D. clonal
693)
Dirofilaria immitis, also known as_____
B
A. Cat heartworm
B. Dog heartworm
C. Human heartworm
D. None of these
694)
Tick infestations could lead to_______
D
A. paralyses
B. allergic reactions
C. toxicities
D. All of these
695)
Are any attributes, characteristics or exposure of an individual that increases the likelihood of developing a disease or injury
is called __________
A
A. Risk factors
B. accident
C. incident
D. None of these
696)
The level of a pathogen in a population, as measured in blood serum is called ____
A
A. Seroprevalence
B. prevalence
C. mesoprevalence
D. All of these
697)
All are major neglected parasitic infections except
B
A. toxocariasis
B. trypanosomiasis
C. trichomoniasis
D. toxoplasmosis
698)
All are soil-born except
C
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Toxocara canis
D. Anclostoma duodenale and Necator americanus
699)
The diseases which normally present in humans but could be transmitted to animals is called_______
C
A. Anthropozoonoses
B. Amphixenosis
C. Zooanthroponoses
D. None of these
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
42
of
59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
700)
Entamoeba histolytica can be cultured in
C
A Maconkey agar
B
CLED medium
C
Diamonds medium
D
NNN medium
701)
Motility of Trichomonas vaginalis is described as
C
A
Amoeboid
B
Jerky
C
Falling leaf like
D
Stately
702)
Faeces are composed of:
D
A Cell of intestinal wall
B Red blood cells occasionally
C Bacteria
D All of these
703)
Ectoparasites can be collected from small animals:
D
A Putting dead animal into polythene bag
B Put in a bag containing chloroform
C Pooter method
D All of these
704)
Ticks are preserved in:
C
A A solution containing 70% alcohol
B A solution containing 70% alcohol and 5% formalin
C A solution containing 70% alcohol and 5% glycerol
D 5% Glycerol
705)
The objectives for collection of trematodes are:
D
A To understand methods for collection
B To understand methods for collection and preservation
C For confirmation of diagnosis of disease
D All of these
706)
The stages of protozoa found in diarrhoic sample:
C
A Trophozoites
B cysts
C Trophozoites and cysts
D Eggs
707)
Malarial parasite, trypanosome and microfilariae can be identified by:
A
A Thick smear
B Thin smear
C Concentration method
D None of these
708)
Onchocerciasis worms can be diagnosed by:
A
A Examination of skin snip
B Direct method
C Sedimentation method
D Floatation method
709)
For detection of microfilariae in the peripheral blood:
C
A Knots method
B Buffy coat method
C Membrane filtration method
D Triple concentration method
710)
To collect insect larval stages from soil use:
B
A Pooter method
B Berlese funnel
C Manitoba trap
D All of these
711)
Which method has more results in examination of skin scrapings:
D
A Direct smear
B Sedimentation
C Floatation
D Sedimentation and Floatation
712)
Faecal quantity required for examination and processing:
A
A 5-10 g
B 10-20 g
C 20-30 g
D 30-40 g
713)
To test few numbers of Trypanosoma:
C
A Knot s method
B Buffy coat method
C Triple concentration technique
D All of these
714)
Tabanid flies can be caught in large number by:
B
A Pooter trap
B Manitoba type trap
C Hand net
D None of these
715)
Dark, tarry color blood in feaces indicates:
B
A Bleeding around rectum
B Bleeding high up in gastrointestinal tract
C Bleeding in complete gastrointestinal tract
D None of these
716)
Burrowing and deep follicular mites can identify by:
B
A Superficial Skin scrapping method
B Deep Skin scrapping
C Skin snip examination
D None of these
717)
A diarrheal specimen examination:
A
Discipline: Parasitology
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43
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59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A Immediately after collection
B After one day
C After 24-48 hours
D After 48-72 hours
718)
To observe extracellular parasites in blood:
D
A Direct method
B Indirect method
C Thin smear
D Thick smear
719)
In cestode infection faecal sample:
B
A Adult worms and eggs
B Proglottids and eggs
C Proglottids and worms
D Eggs and larvae
720)
To detect eggs with high specific gravity, which is preferred method? e.g. trematode and ciliate eggs:
B
A Floatation method
B Sedimentation method
C All of these
D None of these
721)
To determine nematode and trematode eggs per gram of faeces use:
B
A The McMaster technique
B Stoll,s egg counting technique
C Both techniques
D None of these
722)
Faecal sample preservation ideal temperature is:
C
A At -2C
B At -4 C
C At 4 C
D At 25 C
723)
Microscopic faecal examination is done for:
C
A Quantitative faecal examination
B Qualitative faecal examination
C
Both Quantitative faecal examination and Qualitative
faecal examination
D None of these
724)
Blood examination can indicate presence of:
D
A Larvae
B Mites
C Nymphs
D All of these
725)
For relaxation of cestodes before fixation, placed in:
C
A Hot water or saline for 5-30 mins
B Place worms in 5% ethanol
C Hot water or saline for 5-30 mins or Place worms in 5%
ethanol
D None of these
726)
Isolation of white blood:
B
A Thick smear
B Buffy coat method
C Thin smear
D Knot concentration method
727)
To observe morphological feature of Babesia in blood perform:
C
A Indirect blood examination
B
Direct blood examination
C Thin smear
D Thick smear
728)
For quantitative urine examination use polythene bags in:
A
A Large animals
B Small animals
C Both
D None of these
729)
A blood sample containing low number of microfilariae adopt method to identify:
B
A Blood concentration procedures
B Knot s concentration technique
C Buffy coat method
D Thin smear
730)
To observe movement of parasites in blood follow:
A
A Direct method
B Indirect method
C Both direct and indirect method
D None of these
731)
In case of nematode infection can find in faecal sample
D
A Egg
B Larvae
C Adult worms
D All of these
732)
Biting lice and dwelling mites can be identified by:
B
A Deep Skin scrapping method
B Superficial Skin scrapping method
C Skin snip method
D None of these
733)
The Giemsa stain for blood staining must be kept at:
B
A Refrigeration temperature
B Tightly closed out of sunlight
C Room temperature with sun light
D None of these
734)
For parasitic examination preservative added to faeces:
A
Discipline: Parasitology
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44
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59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A 10 % formalin with 3:1
B 40% formalin with 4:1
C 40% formalin with 2:1
D None of these
735)
- To preserve filarioid worms placed immediately in:
A
A 10 % formalin solution
B 70 % hot alcohol;
C 5% formal saline
D None of these
736)
Skin examination methods:
C
A Direct and indirect method
B Staining method
C Skin scraping examination and skin snip examination
D None of these
737)
Staining of protozoa for mounting is done with
B
A Methyl alcohol
B Giemsa stain diluted with methyl alcohol
C Giemsa stain diluted with ethyl alcohol
D None of these
738)
Thick film washing requirement is:
A
A Washing with plenty of water
B Less wash
C Do not wash
D Heat to dry
739)
Protozoa can be collected from:
D
A Serum
B Lymph
C Tissue
D All of these
740)
Mounting media used for protozoa:
C
A Natural resins
B Synthetic resins
C Natural and synthetic resins
D None of these
741)
Scrapping for sarcoptic mange taken from:
B
A Pruritis or pimples place
B Pruritis or pimples place and Edges of hairless area
C Edges of hairless area
D None of these
742)
Hydrotaea irritans
are best caught with:
B
A Pooter
B 50 cm kite net
C Berlese funnel
D None of these
743)
Methods of examination of skin biopsy:
D
A Qualitative method
B Quantitative method
C Collagenase method
D All of these
744)
In thin smear, which position is used to dry the slides?
C
A Horizontal
B Lateral
C Vertical
D Longitudinal
745)
Thick blood films are laked to remove the haemoglobin This is done with the help of
D
A Normal saline solution
B Acidic medium
C Basic medium
D Buffer solution
746)
Giemsa stain is used both for thick and thin films
C
A Quantity of the stain used
B Time duration
C Fixation in methyl alcohol
D None of the above
747)
What is true for avian smears?
A
A The RBCs of the avian are nucleated and oval shaped
B The RBCs of the avian are anucleated and oval shaped
C The RBCs of the avian are anucleated and disk shaped
D The RBCs of the avian are nucleated and disk shaped
748)
In staining procedure of blood films, flushing of the slides is done
B
A To minimize the confusion between RBCs and parasites B To avoid precipitate deposition
C To clarify the image for microscopic examination
D None of the above
749)
What is true for using the Wright’s stain during dry warm weather?
B
A Give more time and use less stain
B Give less time and use more stain
C Add more stain and give less time while uncovering the
slides
D None of the above
750)
Object micrometre is a glass microscope slide etched with linear scale of 1-2 mm in total length with units usually of
B
A 10 milimeter (0001 micro meter)
B 10 micro meter (001 milimeter)
C 01 micro meter (01 milimeter)
D 10 micro meter (0001 milimeter)
751)
- During lumber puncture, cerebral herniation can be caused by
C
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
45
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59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A Vertebral deformities
B Hypertension and bradycardia
C Increased intra cranial pressure
D Decreased platelet count
752)
If the color of cerebrospinal fluid is orange during analysis, this is the indication of
D
A Bacterial meningitis
B Subarachnoid hemorrhage
C Purulent CSF
D High carotenoid intake
753)
If there are high bilirubin and protein levels along with the fungal meningitis, these are the indications when the color of
CSF is
C
A Turbid
B Pink
C Yellow
D Brown
754)
What is true for the maceration and decolourization of collected ecto-parasite specimens?
A
A Treatment with 20% solution of KOH for a period of 15-
35 hours
B Treatment with 10% solution of KOH for a period of 25-
45 hours
C Treatment with 20% solution of KOH for a period of 25-
45 hours
D Treatment with 10% solution of KOH for a period of 15-
35 hours
755)
Dehydration of ecto-parasite specimens is done in a series of ethanol as
B
A 30%, 70% and absolute
B 40%, 70% and absolute
C 40%, 80% and 96%
D 30%, 60% and 96%
756)
In modified McMaster method, centrifugation of collected fecal material is done at
A
A 1500 RPM for 2 minutes
B 1000 RPM for 5 minutes
C 1000 RPM for 2 minutes
D 1500 RPM for 5 minutes
757)
In faecal egg count reduction test, resistance is present if
A
A
Percentage reduction in egg count is less than 95% and
95% confidence level is less than 90%
B
Percentage reduction in egg count is less than 90% and
95% confidence level is less than 95%
C
Percentage reduction in egg count is more than 95% and
95% confidence level is less than 90%
D
Percentage reduction in egg count is less than 95% and
95% confidence level is more than 90%
758)
In faecal egg count reduction test, if the group mean EPG is below 150, this is the indication that
C
A Resistant is not present
B Animals are in good health condition
C Objective assessment of resistance is not reliable
D None of the above
759)
- Incubation requirements for all the test for the evaluation of acaricide resistance are
A
A 27-28 degree C temperature with 85-95 percent relative
humidity
B 27-28 degree C temperature with 75-85 percent relative
humidity
C 27-28 degree C temperature with 85-100 percent relative
humidity
D 20-27 degree C temperature with 85-95 percent relative
humidity
760)
Flumethrin and cypermethrin are the indicators of resistance against
D
A Avermectins
B Organophosphates
C Organochlorines
D Synthetic pyrethroids
761)
For larval packet test, the stock solution of acaricide is prepared in trichloroethylene and commercial olive oil with the
ratio of
B
A 1:2
B 2:1
C 1:3
D 2:3
762)
Biggest advantage of larval immersion test over larval packet test is that
B
A It requires less time
B Does not require technical grade acaricide
C Stock solution is made in Triton X 100
D All of the above
763)
When the parasites are grown with the single known bacterium, this is called as
A
A Monoxenic culture
B Polyxenic culture
C Xenic culture
D Axenic culture
764)
The pure culture without any bacterial associates is called
D
A Monoxenic culture
B Polyxenic culture
C Xenic culture
D None of the above
765)
What is not true for the culture examination of free living amaoeba
D
A Examine plates every 7 days
B Trophozoites will be visible earlier than cysts
C Culture transfer can be done on a new plate
D All of the above
766)
What is not true for the staining of protozoa culture?
A
A Wright’s stain
B Carmine powder
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
46
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59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
C Methylene blue
D Bismark brown
767)
- Whenever the cell’s ATP supply is depleted, which of the following enzyme’s activity is increased?
D
A Hexokinase
B Pyruvate kinase
C Glucokinase
D Phosphofructokinase-1
768)
What is the first step in the payoff phase of glycolysis?
B
A Reduction
of
1,
3-bisphosphoglycerate
to
glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
B Oxidation of glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate to 1, 3-
bisphosphoglycerate
C Reversible conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
D Irreversible conversion of dihydroxyacetone phosphate
to glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate
769)
The product formed in the first substrate level phosphorylation in glycolysis is?
B
A Pyruvate
B 3-phosphoglycerate
C 1, 3-bisphosphoglycerate
D 2-phosphoglycerate
770)
Glycolysis converts?
A
A Glucose into pyruvate
B Glucose into phosphoenolpyruvate
C Fructose into pyruvate
D Fructose into phosphoenolpyruvate
771)
Product of Krebs cycle essential for oxidative phosphorylation is?
D
A NADPH and ATP
B Acetyl CoA
C CO2 and oxaloacetate
D NADH and FADH2
772)
Which molecule accepts hydrogen from malate?
B
A FAD
B NAD
C NADP
D FMN
773)
TCA cycle occurs in aerobic respiration due to?
A
A
Electron transport chain requires aerobic conditions to
operate
B Oxygen is a reactant
C Oxygen has a catalytic function
D All of the above
774)
Acetyl CoA is formed from pyruvate by which reaction?
C
A Dehydration
B Reduction
C Oxidative decarboxylation
D Dephosphorylation
775)
FAD is reduced in which of the reaction of the Kreb’s cycle?
D
A Isocitrate to oxaloacetate
B Succinyl CoA to Succinate
C Fumarate to malate
D Succinate to fumarate
776)
Which of the following is the correct sequence of electron acceptors in ETS for production of ATP?
A
A Cyt b, c, a, a3
B Cyt a, a3, b, c
C Cyt c, b, a, a3
D Cyt b, c, a3, a
777)
Electron transport system (ETS) is present in which of the following parts of mitochondria?
A
A Inner membrane
B Outer membrane
C Matrix
D Stroma
778)
ATP synthesis by ATP synthase is driven by the movement of?
A
A Protons
B NADH
C Electrons
D All of the above
779)
Which of the following products of glucose oxidation are necessary for oxidative phosphorylation?
B
A Pyruvate
B NADH and FADH2
C Acetyl CoA
D NADPH and ATP
780)
CO2 fixation in parasite take place through?
C
A Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase
B Malic enzyme
C Both Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxylase and malic
enzyme
D None
781)
The nutritional physiology of protozoa varies according to?
C
A Protozoan species
B Location of parasite
C Both species and location of protozoa
D None
782)
Which is true for Euplotes species?
D
A Free living ciliate having 50–60 μm size
B Obligate ectocommensal ciliate having 100–170 μm size
C Free living ciliate showing ciliary rows
D Free living ciliate having 100–170 μm size
783)
The live prey ingested by rhizopodans is catalyzed by?
C
Discipline: Parasitology
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47
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59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
A Paralytic enzymes
B Proteolytic enzymes
C Both paralytic and proteolytic enzymes
D None
784)
In kinetoplastids, when excess water leaves the food vacule, the pH become?
A
A Acidic
B Alkaline
C Neutral
D None of these
785)
Trichonaonas buccalis
is commonly known as?
A
A Man mouth parasite
B Amphibian mouth parasite
C Bird mouth parasite
D Mouth bowel worm
786)
The most favourible region of the parasites is?
B
A Stomach
B Deudenum
C Ileum
D Colon
787)
The cysted stage of nematodes are studied in?
C
A Blood
B Stomach
C Skeletal muscles
D Deudenum
788)
The mode of communication in insects is?
D
A Visual
B Olfaction
C Tactile
D All
789)
Allelochemicals are used by insects to communicate?
B
A Between same species
B Between different species
C Both
D None
790)
The salivary glands of arthropodes is used to?
D
A Moisten food
B Lubricate the mouth parts
C Digestion of food
D All
791)
In arthropodes, peritrophic envelope is used to?
D
A Breakdown the food in to smaller pieces
B Breakdown the food in to smaller pieces
C Lubricate the ingested food
D All
792)
Parasitic proteases helps in?
D
A Establishing the infection
B Maintenance of infection
C Exaberating the infection
D All
793)
Leishminiasis grows intracellularly and inhibits the respiratory burst by?
A
A Suppression of Th-1 response
B Activation of Th-1 response
C Suppression of Th-2 response
D Shifting Th-1 to Th-2 response
794)
Serpins inhibit?
C
A Trypsin
B Chymotrypsin
C Serine protease
D Elastase
795)
Intraspecific crowding of parasite, within host tissue or within lumen of gut may result in?
A
A Reduction in growth rate
B Growth to maximum size
C Negative impact on fecundity
D All
796)
Which parasite is transmitted through feaco-oral route?
D
A Taenia saginata
B Giardia lamblia
C Toxocara spp
D All
797)
Granulocytes are which type of cell?
D
A Lymphocyte
B Erythrocyte
C Megakaryocyte
D Leukocyte
798)
Each of the following statements concerning Giardia lamblia is correct except?
C
A G lamblia has both a trophozoite and cyst stage in its life
cycle
B G lamblia is transmitted by the fecal-oral route from
both human and animal sources
C G lamblia causes hemolytic anemia
D G lamblia can be diagnosed by the string test
799)
The names of genus and species are expressed in ____ form
A
A Latin
B Greek
C Roman
D English
800)
Taenia solium
could be present in
C
A. Beef eating community
B. Mutton eating community
C. Pork eating community
D. All Above
Discipline: Parasitology
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59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
801)
Taenia solium
could be present in
A
A. Beef eating community
B. Mutton eating community
C. Pork eating community
D. All Above
802)
Taenia ovis is a
B
A. Ectoparasite
B. Endoparasite
C. Both
D. None
803)
Fasciola gigantica is ------------------ in size than Fasciola hepatica
A
A. Bigger
B. Smaller
C. Both
D. None
804)
-------------------- is known as double-pored tapeworm
C
A.
Echinococcus granulosus
B. Hymenolepis nana
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Spirometra
805)
------------------- Act as intermediate host of Dipylidium caninum
C
A. Flea
B. Lice
C. Both
D. None
806)
Barberpole worm is common name of
B
A. Trichuris trichura
B. Haemonchus contortus
C. Ancylostoma caninum
D. Ascaris lumbricuides
807)
Haemonchus contortus is most important parasite of
A
A. Sheep
B. Camel
C. Cattle
D. Poltry
808)
----------------- act as intermediate host in life cycle of Haemonchus contortus
D
A. Flea
B. Snail
C. Lice
D. None
809)
Adult barberpole worm is found in
D
A. Small Intestine
B. Large Intestine
C. Caecum
D. None
810)
---------------- could be used for treqatment of Haemonchus contortus
D
A. Ivermectin
B. Benzimidazole
C. Levamisole
D. All above
811)
Strongylus edentatus is a
A
A. Nematode
B. Cestode
C. Trematode
D. None
812)
Syngamus trachea is found in ---------------- of definitive host
D
A. Small Intestine
B. Large Intestine
C. Caecum
D. None
813)
Normal definitive host of Ascaris suum is
C
A. Cattle
B. Sheep
C. Pig
D. Man
814)
Toxocara canis is a
C
A. Nematode
B. Cestode
C. Trematode
D. Protozoa
815)
In human beings, Trypanosoma brucei caused a disease called as
C
A. African Trypanosomiasis
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Both
D. Nagana
816)
In animals, Trypanosoma brucei caused a disease called as
D
A. African Trypanosomiasis
B. Sleeping sickness
C. Both
D. Nagana
817)
Common name of Glossina species is
A
A. Tsetse fly
B. Horse fly
C. Both
D. None
818)
Biological vector of sleeping sickness is
A
A. Tsetse fly
B. Horse fly
C. House Fly
D. None
Discipline: Parasitology
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E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
819)
Swollen of the lymph nodes in African trypanosomiasis is called as
A
A. Winterbottom’s sign
B. Springbottom sign
C. Both
D. None
820)
Trypanosoma equiperdum cause disease in equines called as
B
A. Nagana
B. Dourin
C. Surra
D. Muri
821)
Dourine in equines is transmitted by
D
A. Insect biting
B. Contaminated food
C. Both
D. Coitus
822)
Surra in animals is caused by
C
A. Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Trypanosoma evansi
D. Tripanosoma equi
823)
The test used to detect raised levels of IgG and IgM in Trypanosoma evansi infected individuals is the
D
A. Thymol turbidity test
B. Card agglutination test
C. Mercuric chloride test
D. Formol gel test
824)
Trypanosoma species can be culture in vitro on a number of medium including
C
A. NNN medium
B. Weinmann’s medium
C. Both
D. None
825)
Surra in animals can be diagnosed by
D
A. Thymol turbidity test
B. Card agglutination test
C. Mercuric chloride test
D. All above
826)
IgG and IgM levels raised in parasitic infections like
D
A. Malaria
B. Leishmaniasis
C. Schistosomiasis
D. All above
827)
Mal de Caderas is a fatal, usually chronic disease of equines caused by
A
A. Trypanosoma equinum
B. Trypanosoma congolense
C. Trypanosoma evansi
D. All above
828)
Paragona in cattle and other animals is an acute fatal disease caused by
B
A. Trypanosoma equinum
B. Trypanosoma congolense
C. Both
D. Trypanosoma evansi
829)
Souma, a disease of cattle, sheep, gota and horses, is caused by
D
A. Trypanosoma evansi
B. Trypanosoma equinum
C. Trypanosoma congolense
D. Trypanosome vivax
830)
Chaga’s disease can be diagnosed by
A
A. Xenodiagnosis
B. Thymol turbidity test
C. Both
D. Mercuric chloride test
831)
American trypanosomiasis is transmitted by
A
A. Kissing bugs
B. Tsetse fly
C. Both
D. Horse fly
832)
Trypanosoma melophagium is transmitted cyclically in the hindgut by the sheep ked called
B
A. Stomoxys calcitrant
B. Molophagus ovinus
C. Both
D. None
833)
Which of the following species infects primates?
A
A. Trichomonad. suis
B. P. hominis
C. T. buttey
D. Tt. rotunda
834)
Which of the following species does not inhabit the gastro-intestinal tract?
C
A. T. gallinae
B. T. anatis
C. Tt. equi
D. T. tenax
835)
Which of the following species is transmitted sexually?
C
A. Tt. rotunda
B. T. gallinea
C. T. foetus
D. Pt. hominis
836)
Which of the following drugs is effective against Trichomonas vaginalis?
C
A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Metronidazol
D. Pentamidine
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Answer
Key
837)
Which of the following classes of immunoglobulins is important in immunity to T. vaginalis?
A
A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgE
D. IgM
838)
How long after conception does Tritrichomonas foetus cause abortions in cattle?
B
A. One week
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 2-3 months
D. 4-6 months
839)
Tritrichomonas foetus infections in cows usually self-heal within?
C
A. 2 weeks
B. 4 weeks
C. 2 months
D. 3 months
840)
The infection rate of Trichomonas vaginalis in European women is?
C
A. <0.1%
B. 1%
C. 1-5%
D. 5-20%
841)
Trichomonads are members of which phylum of protozoa?
A
A. Sarcomastigophora
B. Apicomplexa
C. Cilliophora
D. Microspora
842)
Trichomonas gallinae is transmitted by which of the following routes?
B
A. sexually
B. oral
C. aerosol
D. direct contact
843)
How long after infection with Trichomonas vaginalis do clinical symptoms begin?
D
A. <24 hours
B. 1-5 days
C. 5-10 days
D. 1-4 weeks
844)
The temperature for extension in PCR is variable and dependent on?
D
A. PCR product size
B. Genome size
C. Template size
D. None of these
845)
Which option is most appropriate if there are higher A-T contents in primers?
D
A. Primers are more specific
B. No effect on sensitivity and specificity of primers
C. Primers are less sensitive but more specific
D. Primers are more sensitive but less specific
846)
Which of the following statement is true regarding reverse primer?
C
A. It binds with antisense strand
B. It is complementary to antisense strand
C. It binds with sense strand
D. For its designing, the sequence from sense strand is
taken as such
847)
After addition of phenol-chloroform during DNA extraction, the DNA become separated in?
A
A. Supernatant
B. Sediment
C. Middle layer
D. Below Middle Layer
848)
During DNA replication, okazaki fragments are joined together by?
C
A. Primase
B. Helicase
C. DNA ligase
D. Topoisomerase
849)
The substance used to separate the proteins from the DNA?
A
A. Salt
B. Ethanol
C. Water
D. SDS solution
850)
The flask-shaped ulcers in the mucosa of the large intestine in humans are caused by
C
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Giardia
C. Entamoeba
D. Toxoplasma
851)
Chagas disease in humans is caused by
D
A. Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma equiperdum
C. Trypanosoma evansi
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
852)
Which of the following protozoa are known as diplomonads
B
A. Cryptosporidium
B. Giardia
C. Entamoeba
D. Eimeria
853)
Nagana disease in cattle is caused by
A
A. Trypanosoma brucei
B. Trypanosoma cruzi
C. Tryapnosoma evansi
D. Trypansoma equiperdum
854)
The epimastigote form of Trypanosoma can be found in
C
A. Mid gut of vector
B. Hind gut of vector
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Answer
Key
C. Salivary glands of vector
D. Faeces of vector
855)
The inflammation at the site of bite by Trypanosoma brucei is known
A
A. Chancre
B. Winterbottom’s sign
C. Duck hunter’s itch
D. Schizophrenia
856)
The enlarged lymph nodes especially at posterior cervical region in Trypanosoma brucei infection is known as
B
A. Trypanosoma Chancre
B. Winter bottom’s sign
C. Chagoma
D. Duck hunter’s itch
857)
The unilateral conjunctivitis together with oedema of upper and lower eye lids and cheek Trypanosoma cruzi infection is
known as
B
A. Romana’s sign
B. Winter bottom’s sign
C. Spring bottom’s sign
D. Summer bottom’s sign
858)
Leishmania multiply within
B
A. RBCs
B. Macrophages
C. Hepatosytes
D. Spleenocytes
859)
Cutaneous leishmaniosis or “oriental sore” in humans is caused by
D
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania chagasi
C. Leishmania infantum
D. Leishmania tropica
860)
Visceral leishmaniosis in humans is caused by
A
A. Leishmania donovani
B. Leishmania chagasi
C. Leishmania infantum
D. Leishmania tropica
861)
Trypomastigotes stage of Trypanosoma usually found in
B
A. Invertebrate host
B. Vertebrate host
C. Both
D. None
862)
How long after conception does Tritrichomonas foetus cause abortions in cattle?
B
A. One week
B. 2-3 weeks
C. 2-3 months
D. 4-6 months
863)
Which of the following species is responsible for East Coast Fever (ECF)?
B
A. Theileria hirci
B. Theileria parva
C. Babesia bovis
D. Theileria mutans
864)
Which of the following species is responsible for Texas Cattle Fever (TCF)?
C
A. Theileria sergenti
B. Theileria annulat
C. Babesia bigemina
D. Babesia bovis
865)
Which of the following genera ticks is the primary vector for Theileria para?
A
A. Rhipicephalus
B. Hyalomma
C. Amblyomma
D. Haemaphysalis
866)
The sporulated oocyst of genus Eimeria contain
C
A. 2 sporocysts
B. 3 sporocysts
C. 4 sporocysts
D. 6 sporocysts
867)
Cecal coccidiosis of chickens is caused by
B
A. Eimeria acervulina
B. E. tennella
C. E. necatrix
D. all above
868)
In chickens, Intestinal coccidiosis is caused by
D
A. E. necatrix
B. E. brunetti
C. E. maxima
D. all above
869)
Cecal coccidiosis in chickens may be confused with
B
A. blackhead
B. salmonellosis
C. Both
D. None
870)
Lesihmaniasis is transmitted by
C
A. Tsetse fly
B. Horse fly
C. Sand fly
D. House fly
871)
The cysts of sarcocystis are found in the
A
A. striated muscles
B. smooth muscles
C. Both
D. None
872)
The cysts of the genus sarcocystis are known as
B
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Answer
Key
A. Rainy’s corpuscles
B. Miescher's tubules
C. Both
D. None
873)
The tachyzoite of Toxoplasma are
A
A. crescent or banana-shaped
B. Oval shaped
C. Pear shaped
D. rod shaped
874)
Drug of choice against east coast fever
B
A. arvaquone
B. buparvaquone
C. halofuginone lactate
D. tetracycline
875)
Anaplasmosis transmitted mechanically by
D
A. Horse flies
B. Deer flies
C. Stable flies
D. All above
876)
Leucocytozoonosis is transmitted
D
A. Horse fly
B. House fly
C. Tsetse fly
D. Black fly
877)
Histomonas meleagridis cause a disease commonly called
B
A. Black quarter
B. Blackhead
C. Cracker
D. Anemia
878)
Which of the following species of plasmodium cause malaria in birds
B
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium relictum
C. Plasmodium malariae
D. Plasmodium bubalis
879)
Which of the following species of plasmodium cause malaria in animals
A
A. Plasmodium malariae
B. Plasmodium relictum
C. Plasmodium polare
D. Plasmodium circumflexum
880)
Amastigote form of Leishmaina can be found in
A
A. Vertebrate host
B. Invertebrate host
C. Intermediate host
D. All of the above
881)
Trypanosoma equiperdum cause disease in equines called as
B
A. Nagana
B. Dorin
C. Surra
D. Muri
882)
The protozoan parasite Histomonas meleagridis is transmitted through ingestion of eggs of
D
A. Haemonchus contortus
B. Ancylostoma caninum
C. Dirofilaria immitus
D. Heterakis gallinarum
883)
Congenital hydrocephalus is mostly seen in which of the following protozoal infection?
C
A. Trypanosoma
B. Leishmania
C. Toxoplasma
D. Babesia
884)
Which of the following is a rickettsial disease?
A
A. Anaplasmosis
B. Babesiosis
C. Toxoplasmosis
D. Histomoniasis
885)
Benzimidazoles work against parasites by
A
A. Binding with protein tubulin
B. Mimicking acetylcholine
C. Paralysing worms
D. None of above
886)
Levamisole work against parasites by
B
A. Binding with protein tubulin
B. Mimicking acetylcholine
C. Both
D. None
887)
In horses Fenbendazole is used to kill
D
A. Ticks
B. Protozoa
C. Mites
D. Helminthes
888)
Avermectins act against parasites by
C
A. Stopping the energy metabolism
B. Inhibiting the Cholinesterase
C. Changing the chloride ion channel activity
D. None of these
889)
Anti-cestodal drugs include
A
A. Niclosamide
B. Organophosphate
C. Levamisole
D. None
890)
Praziquantel is effective against
D
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Answer
Key
A. Trematodes
B. Cestodes
C. Nematodes
D. Both a & b
891)
Humans are------------------ hosts of Fasciola hepatica
A
A. Accidental
B. Definative
C. Intermediate
D. None
892)
Lancet liver fluke is the common name of
C
A. Fasciola hepatica
B. Opisthorchisviverrini
C. Clonorchissinensis
D. None
893)
Heart worm of dog is the name given to
A
A. Dirofilaria immitis
B. Diptelonema reconditum
C. Taenia saginata
D. Taenia solium
894)
Kidney worm of dog is
A
A. Dioctophyma renale
B. Necator americanus
C. Diptelonema reconditum
D. Oesophagostomum
895)
Helminth parasite found in muscles is
A
A. Trichinellaspiralis
B. Haemonchuscontortus
C. Trichostrongylus
D. Oesophagostomum
896)
River blindness is also known as
C
A. Haemonchosis
B. Echinococcosis
C. Onchcerciasis
D. None of them
897)
In Pakistan, the prevalence of gastrointestinal nematodes is higher during
A
A. July – August
B. March – April
C. November – December
D. January – February
898)
Parasite transmitted by eating poorly cooked beef is
A
A. TaeniaSaginata
B. Haemonchus
C. Trichostrongylus
D. None
899)
Hydatidosis is caused by
C
A. Taenia Saginata
B. Haemonchus
C. Echinococus granulosus
D. Trichostrongylus
900)
The names of genus and species are expressed in____ form
C
A. Latin
B. Greek
C. Roman
D. English
901)
The first metacestode stage in the life cycle of parasites such as the Pseudophyllidae and Diphyllidae
C
A. Procercoid
B. Plerocercoid
C. Tetrathyridium
D. Cystecercus
902)
Large fluid filled containing bladder with a number of invaginated scolices attached to the wall
D
A. Coenurus
B. Plerocercoid
C. Tetrathyridium
D. Hydatid cyst
903)
A metacestode with a single single non-invaginated scolex withdrawn into a small vesicle with practically no cavity
D
A. Cystecercoid
B. Plerocercoid
C. Tetrathyridium
D. Hydatid cyst
904)
Large fluid filled cyst lined with germinal epithelium from which are produced invaginated scolices
C
A. Hydatid cyst
B. Procercoid
C. Plerocercoid
D. Tetrathyridium
905)
Nervous system of Cestodes are present in
D
A. Scolex
B. Bothria
C. Bothridiate
D. Proboscis
906)
Heat worm of dog is the name given to
C
A.
Dirofilaria immitis
B.
Diptelonema reconditum
C.
Taenia saginata
D.
Taenia solium
907)
Subcutaneous worm of dog
A
A.
Diptelonema reconditum
B.
Taenia saginata
C.
Taenia solium
D.
Setaria cervi
908)
Subcutaneous worm of duck
A
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Answer
Key
A.
Ornithofilaria fallisiensis
B.
Diptelonema reconditum
C.
Taenia saginata
D.
Taenia solium
909)
Peritoneal worm of cattle
C
A.
Setaria equina
B.
Ornithofilaria fallisiensis
C.
Diptelonema reconditum
D.
Taenia saginata
910)
Peritoneal worm of Horse
B
A.
Setaria equina
B.
Ornithofilaria fallisiensis
C.
Diptelonema reconditum
D.
Taenia saginata
911)
For blood examination of parasites following technique is used
D
A. Knott’s concentration technique
B. Membrane filtration technique
C. Gradient centrifugation technique
D. All of above
912)
Larvae of helminthes present in sputum
A
A. Necator americanus
B. Strongylides
C. Ascaris
D. All of above
913)
Fragments of parasites present in faeces
C
A.
Echinococcus granulosus
B.
Hymonchus contortus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
914)
Kidney worm of dog is
B
A.
Dioctophyma renale
B.
Necator americanus
C.
Diptelonema reconditum
D.
Oesophagostomum
915)
Bladder worm of dog is
B
A.
Cappilaria plica
B.
Echinococus granulosus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
916)
Hekminths eggs excreted in urine are
B
A.
Wucheraria bancrofti
B.
Onchacerca vulvulus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D. a & b
917)
Helminth parasite found in muscles is
A
A.
Trichinella spiralis
B.
Haemonchus contortus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
918)
Riverblindness is also known as
D
A. Onchcerciasis
B. Haemonchosis
C. Echinococcosis
D. None of these
919)
Symptoms of onchocerciasis
B
A. Presence of nodule on the skin
B. Anaemia
C. Convulsions
D. Loss of weight
920)
For diagnosis of riverblindness
B
A. Skin examination
B. Blood examination
C. Feacal examination
D. Urine examination
921)
The basic line of action to control flukes is
B
A. Control of snails
B. Control of mosquitoes
C. Control of flies
D. Control of insects
922)
Trematodes present in bile duct and pencrease is
C
A.
Euytrema pancreaticum
B.
Fasiola hepatica
C.
Echinococus granulosus
D.
Oesophagostomum
923)
Termatodes known as liver fluke is
C
A.
Fasiola hepatica
B.
Haemonchus contortus
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
924)
Chinese or oriental liver fluke is
D
A.
Clonorchis sinensis
B.
Fasiola hepatica
C.
Fasicola buskii
D.
Oesophagostomum
925)
Following parasites are also called as blood flukes
C
A.
Schistosomes
B.
Ascaris lumbricoides
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
OesophagostomumCooperia
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Answer
Key
926)
Head of cestodes is also known as
B
A. Scolex
B. Proboscis
C. Bothria
D. Bothridiate
927)
Bothria is present in which region of cestodes
C
A. Head
B. Neck
C. Strobila
D. skin
928)
Projections called microtriches in cestodes are helpful for
A
A. Increase in surface area
B. Attachment with host
C. Attachment with female
D. Attract feed
929)
Main nerve center in cestodes is composed of
B
A. Ganglia
B. Neurons
C. Nerves
D. None of above
930)
Excretory system of cestodes
A
A. Flame cells
B. Osmosis
C. Diffusion
D. Active transport
931)
Pork Type worm is name given to following parasites
D
A.
Taenia salium
B.
Taenia saginata
C.
Trichostrongylus
D.
Oesophagostomum
932)
Helminth is a word of language
B
A. Greek
B. English
C. Latin
D. Germen
933)
Cestodes are characterized by
B
A. Absent body cavity
B. True body cavity
C. Incomplete body cavity
D. Complete body cavity
934)
Deworming of animals for nematodes should be done after
A
A. One month
B. Every year
C. One week
D. 3-months
935)
Second dose of anthelmintics should be given after how many days of first dose
A
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 14 days
936)
Recommended dose of Benzimidazole for small ruminants is
C
A. 1 ml for 8 kg bwt
B. 1 ml for 10 kg bwt
C. 1 ml for 12 kg bwt
D. 1 ml for 15 kg bwt
937)
Recommended dose of Ivermectin for small ruminants is
B
A. 1 ml for 8 kg bwt
B. 1 ml for 15 kg bwt
C. 1 ml for 20 kg bwt
D. 1 ml for 50 kg bwt
938)
Recommended dose of levamisole for small ruminants is
A
A. 1 ml for 2 kg bwt
B. 1 ml for 5 kg bwt
C. 1 ml for 20 kg bwt
D. 1 ml for 25 kg bwt
939)
Route of administration of Ivermectin is
D
A. Subcutaneous
B. Intramuscular
C. intraperitoneal
D. Oral
940)
Ivermectin was first used as
C
A. Antibiotic
B. Antimalarial
C. Antiseptic
D. All of above
941)
Change of animal species for grazing in a particular pasture is known as
A
A. Alternate grazing
B. Rotational grazing
C. Replacement grazing
D. All of them
942)
Change of pastures for the animals is known as
B
A. Alternate grazing
B. Rotational grazing
C. Replacement grazing
D. All of them
943)
Gastrointestinal nematodes are high in
A
A. July – August
B. March – April
C. November – December
D. January – February
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Answer
Key
944)
The main defense against parasitic diseases is
A
A. Cleanliness
B. Vaccination
C. Deworming
D. Antibiotics
945)
Use of different group of anthelmintics for deworming after 3 months is called as
A
A. Strategic deworming
B. Alternate deworming
C. Rotational deworming
D. Changing of dewormers
946)
Colour of Ivermectin is
A
A. Transparent
B. Milky white
C. Yellow
D. Green
947)
Use of microorganisms for the control of parasites is called as
A
A. Biological control
B. Chemical control
C. Strategic deworming
D. Chemotherapy
948)
Treatment with the help of chemicals is known as
A
A. Chemotherapy
B. Immunological control
C. Strategic deworming
D. Biological control
949)
For
Haemonchus contortus
Egg per gram of faeces more than __ is considered as heavy infection
A
A. 2000-3000
B. 1000-2000
C. 500-1000
D. 100-150
950)
Club shaped oesophagus without a posterior bulb is
A
A. Filariform
B. Rhabditiform
C. Peri enteric
D. All of above
951)
Club shaped anterior portion having pear shaped posterior bulb
B
A. Filariform
B. Rhabditiform
C. Peri enteric
D. All of above
952)
Trichuris is also known as
D
A. Thorny headed worms
B. Hook worms
C. Thread worm
D. Whipworm
953)
Significance of helminth is
D
A. Lower productivity of hosts
B. Lower quality of meat and skin
C. Affect immunity
D. All of above
954)
For detection of helminth infection we use
D
A. Feacal exam
B. Blood exam
C. Sputum
D. All of above
955)
In feces, mostly following for nematodes can be seen
B
A. Adult worm
B. Eggs
C. Segments
D. Larvae
956)
For qualitative faecal exam. We use
D
A. McMaster chamber
B. Stolls egg counting technique
C. Withlock chamber
D. All of above
957)
For simple floatation we use
A
A. Floatation solution
B. Centrifuge machine
C. Stay overnight
D. None
958)
For centrifugal floatation we use
A
A. Centrifuge machine
B. Floatation solution
C. Sedimentation solution
D. None
959)
Principle of centrifuge machine is
A
A. Centrifugal force
B. Centripetal force
C. Density
D. Sp. Gravity
960)
For faecal exam, collection of faeces will be from
A
A. Rectum
B. Ground
C. Freshly from ground
D. None
961)
Macroscopic examination comprise of
D
A. Colour
B. Odour
C. Consistency
D. With naked eye
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Answer
Key
962)
Microscopic examination comprise of
D
A. Colour
B. Adour
C. Consistancy
D. With microscope
963)
Principal of simple floatation is
A
A. Sp. Gravity
B. Centrifugal force
C. Centripetal force
D. Density
964)
Floatation solution used are
D
A. Nacl
B. Zn So4
C. Mgso4
D. All
965)
Volume of whitelock chamber is
D
A. 0.50 ml
B. 0.15 ml
C. 1.5 ml
D. 2 ml
966)
Whitelock chamber a modification of
B
A. Stolls
B. McMaster
C. Simple floatation
D. None
967)
Factors affecting faecal egg count are
D
A. Anthelmintic history
B. Season
C. Type of parasite spp.
D. Breed of animal
968)
Most commonly used anthelmintic are
D
A. Benzimidazole
B. Levamisole
C. Ivermectin
D. All
969)
The anthelmintic used for ectoparasites also is
C
A. Benzimidazole
B. Levamisole
C. Ivermectin
D. None
970)
Tech used for recovery of lungworm larvae is
B
A. coproculture
B. Baermann apparatus
C. Coprocullure
D. EHA
971)
Technique used for recovery of L3 is
B
A. Baermann apparatus
B. Coprocullure
C. EHA
D. LDA
972)
CSF eosinophilia may be caused by
A
A. Angiostrongylus
B. Haemonchus
C. Both
D. None
973)
Transverse myelitis caused by
A
A.
Schistosoma mansonii
B. Trichostyrongylus
C. Oesophegostomum
D. Trichuris
974)
The Helminth of most economic significance in livestock is
A
A. Haemonchus
B. Trichostyrongylus
C. Oesophegostomum
D. Trichuris
975)
The parasite of marshy areas is
A
A. Fasciola
B. Haemonchus
C. Trichostrongylus
D. None
976)
Beef tapeworm
A
A.
Taenia saginata
B. Haemonchus
C. Trichostrongylus
D. None
977)
Parasite transmitted by eating poorly cooked beef
A
A.
Taenia Saginata
B. Haemonchus
C. Trichostrongylus
D. None
978)
Hydatidosis is caused by
A
A.
Echinococus granulosus
B.
Taenia Saginata
C. Haemonchus
D. Trichostrongylus
979)
Namatode parasite of poultry
A
A.
Ascaridia galli
B.
Taenia Saginata
C. Haemonchus
D. Trichostrongylus
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
58
of
59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
980)
Effect of Haemonchus on livestock
D
A. Anaemia
B. Alopacia
C. Retarded growth
D. All
981)
Dwarf tapeworm
A
A.
Hymenolepis nana
B. Haemonchus
C. Haemonchus
D. Trichostrongylus
982)
Brood fish tapeworm
A
A.
Diphyllobothrium latum
B.
Taenia Saginala
C.
Haemonchus
D.
Trichostrongylus
983)
Largest tapeworm of poultry
A
A. Raillietina
B. Taenia Saginala
C. Haemonchus
D. Trichostrongylus
984)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in cattle is
A
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
985)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in horse is
A
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
986)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in pig is
B
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
987)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in dog is
C
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
988)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in poultry is
D
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
989)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in lab animals is
D
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
990)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in goat is
A
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
991)
For diagnosis of blood, preferred site for collection of blood in camel is
A
A. Jugular vein
B. Anterior vena cava
C. Cephalic vein
D. Heart
992)
To prevent the blood from clotting
is added in the blood
D
A. Distilled water
B. Methanol
C. Saline solution
D. None
993)
To prevent the blood from clotting EDTA is added in the blood @
C
A. 10 mg/ml
B. 10-15 mg/ml
C. 20 mg/ ml
D. 20-25mg/ml
994)
Jugular vein is preferred site for collection of blood in
D
A. Camel
B. Cattle
C. Horse
D. All above
995)
Dwarf tapeworm of poultry is a
C
A. Trematode
B. Nematode
C. Cestode
D. None
996)
Larval form of
Echinococcus granulosus
developed in man is known as
D
A. Strobilocercus
B. Coenurus
C. Cysticercus
D. None
997)
Body of flukes appears like
C
A. Ribbon
B. Common Pin
C. Leaf
D. None
Discipline: Parasitology
Page
59
of
59
E) Clinical Parasitology (MCQs)
Answer
Key
998)
Definitive host of beaf tapeworm is
B
A. Cattle
B. Man
C. Bird
D. None
999)
Helminthology is the Study of Phylum
C
A. Platyhelminthes
B. Nemathelminths
C. Both
D. None
1000)
Pigs or dogs are the source of human infection by each of the following parasites EXCEPT:
A
A.
Ascaris lumbricoides
B.
Echinococcus granulosus
C.
Trichinella spiralis
D.
Taenia solium
